Ole J. Rogeberg
Tue, 20 Feb 2001 02:03:16 -0800
A question related to the issue of race and abilities: Having followed some of the similar debate on IQ and race following the Bell curve book and Goulds "mismeasure of man", it strikes me that many participants in the debate (and often the most committed ones) fail to separate the "positive" and "normative" aspects of the question. Those working on the "positive science" question of whether there are measureable differences between, for instance, the cognitive skills of different "races" which have a genetic origin, are immediately accused of promoting a policy of racism. Yet this does not follow, as far as I can see. In fact, the intense attack on anyone suggesting that there are measurable differences due to genes, and the claim that there is a necessary connection between this finding and a policy of racism, should be frowned upon by anti-racists. After all, the world is what it is, and if there are differences due to genes (which arguments such as those made by David at least suggest the *possibility* of), then these will someday be discovered. If those opposing racist policies have publicly committed themselves to the claim that the policy of racism is wrong *because* there are no differences between the races, then what? Would they approve of racism? Of course not. So my question is: Are normative and positive issues (believing in differences and supporting racist policies) more confused and mixed in the debate on race than what we find in other debates? And if so, why? Is there a "rational" reason for this? Ole J.