On Di, 2016-09-13 at 23:35 +0000, michael.norr...@data61.csiro.au
wrote:
> Note that ∃!x. ∃!y. P x y is not equivalent to ∃!xy. P (fst xy) (snd
> xy).
> 
> If you were going to support ∃!x y at all (and I can certainly see
> the argument for forbidding it outright), I'd expect it to map to the
> first formula above, and not the second.

So there seems to be no consensus on the meaning of "∃!x y".

Btw: I would strongly argue that a proposition like 
"∃!x y. x = abs (y::int)" is wrong, however it holds with the "∃!x.
∃!y"-semantics.

--
  Peter



> 
> Michael
> 
> On 13/09/2016, 18:41, "isabelle-dev on behalf of Tjark Weber" <isabel
> le-dev-boun...@mailbroy.informatik.tu-muenchen.de on behalf of tjark.
> we...@it.uu.se> wrote:
> 
>     On Tue, 2016-09-13 at 09:45 +0200, Peter Lammich wrote:
>     > I would have expected:
>     > (∄x y. P x y) ⟷ ¬(∃x y. P x y)
>     > and
>     > (∃!x y. P x y) ⟷ (∃!xy. P (fst x) (snd x))
>     
>     +1
>     
>     Best,
>     Tjark
>     
>     
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