Helen Conrad-O'Briain
Tue, 6 Aug 2002 08:01:25 GMT
--- You wrote:
In the case of Vergil, it seems clear (assuming we identify the person
named as the poet) that Horace in Odes I.3 calls Vergil "Vergil." So perhaps
it is as simple a thing as what people called these writers in ancient times.
I doubt that the Romans consistently called all people by one name or the
other.
--- end of quote ---
Horace and Vergil were relatively well acquainted, weren't they? I know that
they had at least met each other, so could it have been a familiar greeting?
Maybe our reason for calling them by the familiar name is a search for a closer
connection to them. Or maybe I've just fallen off the deep end.
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