peirce-l  

[peirce-l] Re: What

Jeff Kasser
Thu, 05 Oct 2006 12:27:15 -0700

Good stuff, Jim.  Thanks.

I've raised a query about the relationship between the two laws and the method 
of tenacity in my just-posted response to Joe, who broached a similar issue.  
I'd like, of course, to hear your thoughts on this matter.  I'm not sure that 
the tenacious person's basing his method on these laws would need to be done as 
explicitly or self-consciously as your message suggests.  If the method were 
adequately grounded in the proper laws, that would count in favor of the 
practices of someone deploying the method, even if the deployer were unaware of 
the grounding.  Lots of questions about the different objects of epistemic 
evaluation (people, beliefs, methods, arguments, etc.) could arise here, but 
Peirce seems most directly interested  in the virtues and vices of methods, 
rather than of those who deploy them.

Also like Joe, you don't quite make it clear which two laws you think Peirce 
has in mind.  I don't have my text with me just now and will go over it with 
both your message and Joe's in mind in the next day or so.  I'm excited to see 
what we all manage to come up with.  The suggestion in your message could, I 
suppose, be combined with Joe's about the properties of neural tissue.  Your 
law will need to be hedged a good bit to protect it from falsification, but 
that's not an objection, since that holds of most laws.

Best,

Jeff
-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: "Peirce Discussion Forum" <peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu>
Date: Wed, 04 Oct 2006 00:05:50 -0400
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: What

 Thanks for the response Jeff.
 
I guess my first question is whether the passage which reads "basing his 
method, as he does, on two fundamental psychological laws" could refer to 
something not specifically targeted for the method of tenacity. The settlement 
of opinion is common to all four methods, and thus, does not seem to reflect 
laws peculiar to the method of tenacity. I previously suggested:
 
"an instinctive dislike of an undecided state of mind....makes men cling 
spasmodically  to what views they already take." (FOB sec.5)
 
This is target specific. Now, the data for this law (presuming we could frame 
it in terms of all men at some time) may be understood as coenoscopic in the 
sense of an observation about our common moral psychology. But it could also be 
expressed idioscopically in terms of association and habit. It is difficult 
given the passage above to imagine the tenacious individual "basing his method" 
on association or habit since these could hardly be as transparent to the 
tenacious individual as the passage suggests the psychological laws are. 
(basing his method, as he does...)
 
Jim W
 
 
-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu
Sent: Tue, 3 Oct 2006 11:24 AM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: What


I agree with you, Jim, that Peirce must have thought that the statement about 
the aim of inquiry must be pretty close, at least, to being a psychological 
law.  
I claimed as much in my post.

It's nevertheless a somewhat puzzling claim.  Precisely because, as you note, 
the (alleged) fact that doubt is necessary for inquiry does not directly settle 
the question about the aim of inquiry, it's a bit peculiar that Peirce called 
his claim about the aim of inquiry a psychological law.  Generalizations about 
what some people desire when they inquire won't get us anywhere near the status 
of a law.  Even a generalization about what all inquirers in fact "desire when 
they inquire seems to fall far short of nomological status.  Peirce seems to be 
talking about an aim that is internal to inquiry in the way that checkmate is 
internal to playing chess (though the motivations for chess-playing can be 
quite 
various).  Nobody would be tempted to say that the aim of chess is a 
psychological law or fact.  But Peirce seems to be claiming, not just in 
"Fixation" but in many other places, that the aim of the activity of inquiry 
can 
be derived from psychological (i.e. psychical) facts.  And he also seems to 
claim that an activity doesn't count as inquiry unless it is done from a 
certain 
aim (or maybe even from certain motivations).  So these psychical facts about 
doubt and belief are doing a lot of peculiar and intriguing work for Peirce.

Best,

Jeff

-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: "Peirce Discussion Forum" <peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu>
Date: Mon, 02 Oct 2006 12:49:49 -0400
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: What "fundamenal psychological laws" is Peirce 
referring 
to?

J Kasser says,
 
"It's not easy to see how Peirce could have considered "the settlement of 
opinion is the sole object of inquiry" a psychical or a psychological law.  It 
seems charitable here to see Peirce as writing a bit casually once again and to 
construe him as meaning that the statement in question is a normative truth 
more 
or less forced on us by psychological (i.e. psychical) facts.  But, as the 
following quote from another of your messages indicates, Peirce was pretty 
quick 
to close the is/ought gap with respect to this issue:


The following axiom requires no comment, beyond the remark that it seems often 
to be forgotten. Where there is no real doubt or disagreement there is no 
question and can be no real investigation.

So perhaps he really meant that a statement about the aim of iqnuiry could be a 
(coenscopic) psychological law. " (end)
 
The question is whether "the settlement of opinion is the sole object of 
inquiry" is a normative truth or a psychological law. The fact that doubt is a 
necessary condition for inquiry does not settle this question. It merely 
suggests what is required for any inquiry to begin. 
 
Peirce does not say "the settlement of inquiry ought to be the sole object of 
inquiry." Thus, the statement is a generalization about what all (some?) men 
desire when they inquire. It is the major premise in a practical syllogism. The 
conclusion is the normative claim that we ought to pursue the scientific 
method. 
Maybe there is an implicit premise that we ought to pursue the best method for 
settling opinion. This might satisfy those concerned with the "naturalistic 
fallacy."
 
Peirce overstates his case about his own psychologism.  His statement about the 
"origin of truth" is unfortunate. He should have spoken of either a "desire for 
truth"  originating in the impulse to self-consistency or of "belief." In the 
latter case, it makes perfectly good sense to talk about psychological concepts 
such as self-control, satisfaction, conviction, habit etc.  The interesting 
question is whether we can make sense of practical reason and talk of ends and 
actions without the introduction of psychological concepts.
 
The problem here has less to do with replacing psychologizing tendencies with 
phenomenological observations than with using the "intentional idom" to assess 
practical reason. I have always thought of FOB as an "ethics of inquiry." And 
unless one wants to try and eliminate the concepts involved in moral 
psychology, 
they are always there as a conceptual resource for articulating the normative 
basis of methodology in the sciences. It appears then, that logical methodology 
is based on ethics. 
 
Jim W
 
 
 
-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu
Sent: Sun, 1 Oct 2006 3:04 PM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: What "fundamenal psychological laws" is Peirce 
referring 
to?


Joe and other listers,

Thanks, Joe, for your kind words about my paper.  I fear that you make the 
paper 
sound a bit more interesting than it is, and you certainly do a better job of 
establishing its importance than I did.  It's something of a cut-and paste job 
from my dissertation, and I'm afraid the prose is sometimes rather 
"dissertationy," which is almost never a good thing.

First, as to the question in the heading of your initial message, it seems to 
me 
that Peirce can only be referring to the antecedents of the two conditional 
statements that motivate the method of tenacity in the first place.  These are 
stated in the first sentence of Section V of "Fixation."  "If the settlement of 
opinion is the sole object of inquiry, and if belief is of the nature of a 
habit, why should we not attain the desired end, by taking any answer to a 
question which we may fancy, and constantly reiterating it to ourselves, 
dwelling on all which may conduce to that belief, and learning to turn with 
contempt and hatred from anything which might disturb it."  In the context of 
the paper, this would seem to make fairly straightforward sense of the idea 
that 
tenacity rests on "two fundamental psychological laws."  Peirce sure seems to 
think that it should be apparent to the reader on which "laws" tenacity rests, 
and so I don't think we're to wander too far afield from the paper itself in 
deter
mining which the laws are.

This interpretation does have two disadvantages, however.  If my paper is at 
all 
close to right, then Peirce considered these laws "psychical" rather than 
"psychological," in the 1870's as well as in the 1860's and in the latter half 
of his career (I don't mean that he had the term "psychical" available in 1877, 
however).  But this is one of those places where the fact that Peirce was 
writing for *Popular Science Monthly* can perhaps be invoked to account for 
some 
terminological sloppiness.  A second consideration is a bit more troublesome, 
however.  It's not easy to see how Peirce could have considered "the settlement 
of opinion is the sole object of inquiry" a psychical or a psychological law.  
It seems charitable here to see Peirce as writing a bit casually once again and 
to construe him as meaning that the statement in question is a normative truth 
more or less forced on us by psychological (i.e. psychical) facts.  But, as the 
following quote from another of your messages indicates, Peirce was 
pretty quick to close the is/ought gap with respect to this issue:


The following axiom requires no comment, beyond the remark that it seems often 
to be forgotten. Where there is no real doubt or disagreement there is no 
question and can be no real investigation.

So perhaps he really meant that a statement about the aim of iqnuiry could be a 
(coenscopic) psychological law.  This raises an issue you mention in yet 
another 
message, viz.  what exactly makes doubts "paper" or otherwise inappropriate.  
There's been some good work done on this issue, but I think Peirce's confidence 
that the coenscopic data rather directly warrants his methodological 
conclusions 
is puzzling and I'm trying to wrestle with this problem these days.

I'd like to add to remarks about your message concerning my 1999 paper, neither 
of which amounts to a disagreement.  First, I'm inclined to supplement your 
valuable considerations about the coenscopic sense of "mind."  You focus on 
some 
of our locutions concerning minds like ours, and I'd just add the Peircean 
thought that the coenscopic notion of "mindedness" extends to cases at some 
remove from the human exemplar.  Even something as simple as a sensor is going 
to, as Peirce sees matters, need belief-like states (ways of storing 
information, assumptions about what the world is like, etc.) and doubt-like 
states (ways in which the world can get the sensor's attention).  This needs 
some working out, but Peirce seems to think that the doubt-belief theory will 
hold of anything that can play a certain role (perhaps picked out 
communicatively) in inquiry.

Finally, I should note that I'm perhaps less confident than you are, Joe, that 
Peirce's apparent complaints about the "psychological" basis of "Fixation" and 
"How To" are primarily admissions of a rhetorical failure in allowing those who 
don't understand psychologism to accuse Peirce thereof.  That may account for 
some such passages, but I suspect that in some cases Peirce had in mind his 
preferred (at the time) notion of a philosophical grounding (in phenomenology 
or 
semiotics or the normative sciences, etc.) and was faulting himself for not 
providing a sufficiently "deep" argument for some of his methodological claims, 
especially the pragmatic maxim.  But you and I are in agreement on the central 
point, which is that Peirce was not accusing himself of anything worth calling 
psychologism.

Best to all,

Jeff

Joseph Ransdell wrote:

As regards tthe logical vs. psychological distinction:  Jeff Kasser wrote an 
important paper on  what that distinction meant for Peirce a few years ago.  
The 
title is "Peirce's Supposed Psychologism".  It;s on the ARISBE website: 

http://members.door.net/arisbe/menu/library/aboutcsp/kasser/psychol.htm

Jeff makes it pretty clear, I think, that what Peirce meant by "psychologism" 
-- 
which Peirce frequently inveighs against but is often accused of himself --  is 
not what most people who talk about this now assume that it is.  I won't 
attempt 
to state Jeff's conclusions here with any exactitude -- he will be joining the 
discussion himself in a few days when he gets some free time -- but just 
roughly 
indicate what he is getting  at -- or at least what I learned or think I 
learned 
from his paper -- namely, that  the conception of thought or mind is not 
uniquely the proper province of any special science, be it psychology 
(scientific or otherwise)  or sociology or linguistics or the theory of 
computing machines or whatever.  The idea of mind or thought is also a basic 
commonsense conception which has been around in the West in an overt form since 
the time when people first started speculating about thought and mind in 
ancient 
Greece.  In the terminology Peirce adopted from Jeremy Bentham, we should dis
tinguish between a COENOSCOPIC  sense of "mind" or "thought" or other 
mentalistic term and an  IDIOSCOPIC sense of such terms..  The former is the 
sense of "mind" or "thought" which we have in mind [!!] when we say something 
like "What are you thinking about?",  "What's on you mind?", "He spoke his 
mind", and so forth, as distinct from the sense which is appropriate for use in 
the context of some special scientific study of mind. 

To understand what is meant by the word "mind" as used in scientific 
psychology, 
let us say, we have to find out what people who have established or mastered 
something in that field understand by such terms since the meaning of such 
terms 
in that context is a matter of what the course of special study of its subject 
matter has resulted in up to this point. That is the idioscopic sense of 
"mind", 
"thought", etc.  But long before there was anything like a science of 
psychology 
and long before we were old enough to understand that there is any such thing 
as 
psychology we had already learned in the course of our ordinary dealings with 
people something about the nature of mind in the "coenoscopic" sense of the 
term.  For we all learn early on, as small children,  that we have to figure 
out 
what people are thinking in order to understand what they are wanting to say, 
for example; we learn that people can be sincere or insincere, saying one thing 
and thinking another; we learn that they sometimes lie, pre
tending to think what what they do not actually think or believe; people change 
their minds; they tell us what is on their minds; and we learn also that they 
believe us or doubt us, too, when we say something, and so forth.  We become 
constantly -- I don't mean obsessively but just as a mater of course -- aware 
of 
that sort of thing in any conversation we have or any communications we read.  
In other words it is just the plain old everyday understanding that is 
indispensable for ordinary life, which may be shot through with contradiction 
and incoherence but,.for better or worse,  is indispensable nonetheless  

Now it is a nice question to get clear on exactly what we must be minimally 
assuming or taking for granted in drawing such commonsense distinctions in our 
ordinary day-in, day-out dealing with people, and we may very well make big 
mistakes in trying to say what they are; but whatever the right analysis of 
that 
yields -- which may take some considerable skill to get right -- it will be our 
common sense understanding of what mind is, what thinking is, etc.  That is our 
"coenoscopic" understanding of what mind is and that is what philosophers -- 
including logicians -- are (or ought to be) concerned to explicate when they 
are 
doing their proper job..  

Such is, I believe, Peirce's view of the distinction of two kinds of 
understanding of what mind is.  There is, by the way, a corresponding 
distinction to be drawn between our ordinary commonsense (coenoscopic)  physics 
-- our understanding of the purely physical aspect of the things we have to 
deal 
with in moving about and moving other things in the world, and then there os 
the 
special scientific (ideoscopic) understanding.  Now, at one point Jeff quotes a 
passage from Peirce in which he claims that at the basis of the special 
sciences 
we in fact find coenoscopic conceptions which we think of as being idioscopic 
though they are not.  

==========quote Peirce=================
Now it is a circumstance most significant for the logic of science, that this 
science of dynamics, upon which all the physical sciences repose, when defined 
in the strict way in which its founders understood it, and not as embracing the 
law of the conservation of energy, neither is nor ever was one of the special 
sciences that aim at the discovery of novel phenomena, but merely consists in 
the analysis of truths which universal experience has compelled every man of us 
to acknowledge. Thus, the proof by Archimedes of the principle of the lever, 
upon which Lagrange substantially bases the whole statical branch of the 
science, consists in showing that that principle is virtually assumed in our 
ordinary conception of two bodies of equal weight. Such universal experiences 
may not be true to microscopical exactitude, but that they are true in the main 
is assumed by everybody who devises an experiment, and is therefore more 
certain 
than any result of a laboratory experiment. (CP 8.198, CN3 230 [1905])
============end quote===========

In other words, Peirce is identifying there the point at which the coenoscopic 
and the idioscopic meet, in physical conceptions that appear in the context of 
idioscopic (special scientific) research, and I suggest that the two 
"psychological laws" which he is referring to in the passage in the Fixation 
article which I quoted in my first post on this topic must be the coenoscopic 
analogues of those in the case of the psychological sciences,   In other words, 
 
those particular psychological laws must be psychological in the commonsense 
psychology of everyday life, though they will appear as fundamental conceptions 
in scientific psychology.and thus seem at first to be idioscopic in type.  

Now Jeff's claim in that paper (among other things)  is that "The Fixation of 
Belief" is concerned with psychology only in the sense of commonsense 
psychology, not scientific psychology, and Peirce's anti-psychologism is as 
characteristically present in that paper as it is in any of his more technical 
papers on logic.  Thus the fact that the Fixation paper relies as heavily as it 
does on doubt and belief  neither shows that  Peirce lapsed into  psychologism 
there nor that Peirce ever thought that this was so,  but rather -- and I think 
this is what Jeff is saying -- it is rather that where Peirce may seem to be 
admitting to psychologism in that paper he is in fact admitting to something 
rather different, namely, a rhetorical failure in composing it that mistakenly 
made it appear  to people who do not understand what the objection to 
psychologism actually is that he was making his claims in that paper rest on 
psychology in the special or idioscopic sense. when in fact he was not.   (I 
may 
be putting
 words in Jeff's mouth there but I think that is what he is getting at.)  

Well, that will have to do for this post.  Sorry for being so long-winded on 
that.

Joe

[EMAIL PROTECTED]

   
.    .  


----- Original Message ----
From: Bill Bailey <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: Peirce Discussion Forum <peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu>
Sent: Saturday, September 23, 2006 1:21:48 PM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: What "fundamenal psychological laws" is Peirce 
referring 
to?


Joe, thanks for your response.  I "get it" now.
 
Festinger came to mind because "selective exposure" as a mode of dissonance 
avoidance was a major topic in communication research.  I haven't read that 
literature in years--and I didn't particularly buy into it then--so don't trust 
me now.  As I recall, one mode of dissonance reduction was similar to the 
pre-dissonance mode:  "selective perception," or "cherry picking"--selecting 
only the data consonant with the threatened belief or behavior.  
"Rationalization" was a dissonance reduction means, I think, though it seems 
nearly tautological.  In terms of Festinger's smoking-health dissonance I 
remember it in this form:  "We're all going to die of something."  There is 
also 
the heroic, the transcendent "We all owe a death."  Simple denial is a common 
means:  "If smoking causes cancer, most smokers would get it, but in fact most 
don't."  Researchers turned up so many techniques of  dissonance reduction I no 
longer remember which were originally proposed by Festinger and which came 
later.  
 
Some, by the way (I think Eliot Aronson among them), argued cognitive 
dissonance 
was not a logical but a psychological phenomena, and that humans were not 
rational but rationalizers.  And, relevant to your remarks below, some argued 
that the need to reduce the dissonance resulted not from logical tensions, but 
from the social concept of the self.  For example, the argument goes, if it 
were 
only a logical tension operating, there'd be no tension experienced from 
telling 
a lie for money.  It would make logical sense to say anything asked of you for 
either a few or many bucks.  The tension arises only as a result of social 
norms:  "What kind of person am I to tell a lie for a lousy couple of bucks."  
In my personal experience with smoking, I could have cared less about the 
dissonance between my smoking and the health information.  It was simply 
desire; 
I didn't want to quit.  I became involved in "dissonance reduction" behaviors 
only when socially challenged or when I thought about dealing such challe
nges. 
 
As regards the argument that social consciousness is prior to the consciousness 
of self, doesn't "social consciousness" somewhat load the dice?  Social 
consciousness requires some degree of "exteriorizing," creating an "out there" 
of objects through processes of representation that must be acquired through 
learning and language.  A parallel consciousness of self would necessarily be a 
consequent and never an antecedent development.  Now, I believe that is the 
case 
for the "consciousness of . . . " modality of mind in which the self is a 
representational construct.  But from what did all that construction arise?  I 
think we are necessarily forced to accept a more primary mode of information 
processing, the more autistic or "child-like" consciousness in which feelings, 
actions, and perceptions are merged in a single plane of experience.  I view 
the 
learned social consciousness as a secondary overlay onto the primary 
mode--which 
persists throughout out lives as our everyday mind.  In the primary mode,
 events and object are experienced pretty much in terms of their immediate 
relevances--what we are feeling and doing.  The contents of the acquired 
secondary mode are assimilated into the primary mode of information processing. 
 
Hence we can very subjectively find beauty and enjoyment in the spontaneous 
elaboration of theories that cause freshmen, stumbling along in the secondary 
mode, acute headaches.   
 
Isn't it the imposition of social consciousness which forces upon us 
rationalization if not rationality itself?   Even those who live in literature 
and want to eat the fruit from still life paintings must rationalize the 
irrational.   (I think the "irrational" in human behavior is seldom the 
opposite 
of "rational,"  but more nearly something like "autistic," "narcissistic," or 
"egocentric," and as such more nearly the opposite of "social.")
 
Bill Bailey
 

"Joe, I don't understand why you think the order might be reversed.  To resort 
to authority is essentially to cease thinking and to unquestioningly accept.  
There's no cognitive dissonance avoidance necessary.  But if we begin with 
trying to avoid dissonance, and society forces us to confront it, then 
authority 
is one possible resort.   (Leon Festinger's school of research would suggest 
still other possibilities of dissonance reduction.)"

REPLY:

Well, I was thinking of the argument one might make that social consciousness 
is 
prior to consciousness of self, and the method of tenacity seems to me to be 
motivated by the value of self-integrity, the instinctive tendency not to give 
up on any part of oneself, and one's beliefs are an important aspect of what 
one 
tends to think of when one thinks of one's identity.  Losing some beliefs e.g. 
in religion, in one's parents, in the worthiness of one's country, etc., can be 
experienced as a kind of  self-destruction and people often seem to demonstrate 
great fear of that happening to them.  But this sense of self-identity could be 
argued to be a later construct than one's idea of the social entity of which 
one 
is a part.  

I always liked to use it in teaching intro to philosophy classes because it is 
the only paper on logic I know of where it is made clear that there is no 
obvious or self-evident basis for supposing that it is better to be reasonable 
than unreasonable:  indeed, irrationality is frequently respected more highly 
than rationality by people with a literary orientation, for example.  Anyway, 
what I want to say is that I interpret Peirce as appealing to four distinct 
things of value to which appeal can be made -- which may be existentially at 
odds with one another as values -- in a process of belief-fixing:  
self-integrity, social unity, coherence or unity of ideas (construable 
objectively as the idea that there is a universe), and the idea of the 
independently real that is always there, the one thing you can always rely 
upon.  
I think of the fourth method as presupposing the values of the first three but 
as introducing a fourth as well, which could be the first three considered AS 
ordered, I suppose. (But
 I am not arguing that.)      

What are the other possible kinds of dissonance reduction that Festinger 
identifies, by the way?

Joe 



----- Original Message ----
From: Bill Bailey <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: Peirce Discussion Forum <peirce-l@lyris.ttu.edu>
Sent: Friday, September 22, 2006 11:34:25 PM
Subject: [peirce-l] Re: What "fundamenal psychological laws" is Peirce 
referring 
to?


Joe, I don't understand why you think the order might be reversed.  To resort 
to 
authority is essentially to cease thinking and to unquestioningly accept.  
There's no cognitive dissonance avoidance necessary.  But if we begin with 
trying to avoid dissonance, and society forces us to confront it, then 
authority 
is one possible resort.   (Leon Festinger's school of research would suggest 
still other possibilities of dissonance reduction.)
 
Bill Bailey


In "The Fixation of Belief" Peirce says that 

"a man may go through life, systematically keeping out of view all that might 
cause a change n his opinions, and if he only succeeds -- basing his method, as 
he does, on two fundamental psychologicl laws -- I do not see what can be said 
against his doing so".    

This is in Part V, where he is explaining the method of tenacity, where he then 
goes on to say that "the social impulse" will nevertheless somehow cause him, 
at 
times, to face up to some contradiction which impels recourse to adopting the 
second method, which is the method of authority.  

His explanation of this is very unsatisfactory, far too sketchy to be very 
informative, and I wonder if anyone has run across any place where he says 
anything that might flesh that out or, regardless of that, whether anyone has 
any plausible explanation themselves of exactly what accounts for the 
transition 
from the first to the second method.   One might wonder, too,whether Peirce 
might not have the order wrong:  might it not be argued that method #1 should 
be 
authority and method #2 tenacity?  I wonder if anyone has ever tried to justify 
his ordering of the methods in the way he does? I don't recall anyone ever 
trying to do that, but then I don't trust my memory on this since it has not 
always been a topic in which I had much interest until fairly recently.  That 
he 
has somehow got hold of something right in distinguishing the methods can be 
argued, I believe, but can the ordering really be argued for as plausible?  

Joe Ransdell

[EMAIL PROTECTED]


---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]
No virus found in this incoming message.
Checked by AVG Free Edition.
Version: 7.1.405 / Virus Database: 268.12.6/453 - Release Date: 9/20/2006

---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]



---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]

No virus found in this incoming message.
Checked by AVG Free Edition.
Version: 7.1.405 / Virus Database: 268.12.6/453 - Release Date: 9/20/2006

---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]



---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]

---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]
________________________________________________________________________
Check Out the new free AIM(R) Mail -- 2 GB of storage and industry-leading spam 
and email virus protection.


---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]





---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]
________________________________________________________________________
Check Out the new free AIM(R) Mail -- 2 GB of storage and industry-leading spam 
and email virus protection.


---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber [EMAIL PROTECTED]





---
Message from peirce-l forum to subscriber archive@mail-archive.com