All of the recent versioning talk of the frameworks has made me wonder how you could deal with the following scenario...
If I built a Windows Control (the .NET equivalent of an ActiveX control) in C# for the 1.0 framework, and used methods in the 1.0 framework that changed in the 1.1 framework in building it originally for 1.0, then how would I indicate that this control needs the 1.0 version of the runtime? It seemed as though the bindingRedirect setting in the application configuration file would cover this until I realized that the application hosting the control is the one that is controlling the version of the framework, NOT the control I built. If I built a 1.1 application and tried to use my 1.0 control in it, it would fail if I couldn't do this, wouldn't it? Or does anyone know of a way to specify the requiredRuntime for the control independent of the runtime? Of course if you could do this it would probably mean your control doesn't actually live in the same process anymore as the CLR version would be different and all of the calls would be remoted over to it with all of the lovely performance implications that would provide... It seems like component developers would have an issue here as they would have to continually make sure they had revs of their components ready that are safe with each version of the framework. Publisher policy doesn't seem like it could deal with this currently (assuming the IT departments would let them deploy this publisher policy). Kind of seems like a new twist on DLL hell doesn't it? I welcome anyone who can enlighten me differently as I hope this isn't the case :) You can read messages from the Advanced DOTNET archive, unsubscribe from Advanced DOTNET, or subscribe to other DevelopMentor lists at http://discuss.develop.com.
