On what basis do you think it's true that perception precedes cognition?  I 
must have missed something but it's fairly well understood that perception is 
never pure but is affected by cognitive preconceptions. Boiled down: we see 
what we know.
WC


--- On Sat, 10/4/08, GEOFF CREALOCK <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> From: GEOFF CREALOCK <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> Subject: Re: Community Vocabulary
> To: [email protected]
> Date: Saturday, October 4, 2008, 1:11 PM
> By golly, we can agree "perception precedes ...
> cognition/perception".
> Geoff C
> 
> 
> >From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> >Reply-To: [email protected]
> >To: [email protected]
> >Subject: Re: Community Vocabulary
> >Date: Sat, 4 Oct 2008 09:59:24 EDT
> >
> >Geoff wrote:
> >"So, perhaps we might say that perceived and
> understood words lead 
> >to/elicit
> >associations or responses, of course, mediated by our
> minds."
> >
> >I responded:
> >"I'd replace "lead to/elicit", again
> because of the connotation of
> >action by Dickinson's words."
> >
> >Geoff responded:
> >"How about "precedes"?
> >
> >That'd work with the following additional
> alteration. The alteration is 
> >aimed
> >at avoiding saying the "words" precede.
> It's the action of PERCEIVING the
> >words that is the critical predecessor, the moment
> when, say, the raw sense 
> >data
> >arises in the mind. So:
> >
> >"So, perhaps we might say that the perception of
> words precedes 
> >associations
> >or responses generated by our receiving and processing
> apparatus."
> >
> >
> >
> >
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