Regarding the history of this issue, Kivy asserts that :

 "Kant's aesthetic ideas are to be seen as the first (or any) historical step
in the aesthetic conflation of form with content"

I am in no position to dispute that assertion, but I do question whether "the
Greek and Roman world.... would have found (Bradley's) claim very puzzling
indeed and rejected it out of hand"  (as did Kivy).

Kivy's evidence for this historical claim comes from Lucretius's "De  Rerum
Natura":


"I have chosen to set forth my doctrine to you in sweet-speaking pierian song,
and as it were to touch it with the Muses' delcious honey, if by chance in
such a way I might engage your mind in my verses, while you are learning to
see in what shape is shaped the whole nature of things"

Got it?

Lucretius says that he was using poetic language to sugar-coat a pill of
bitter knowledge. (which, presumably, could have been expressed in other, more
prosaic words)

However,  there is no evidence that Lucretius ever tried to present "in what
shape is shaped the whole nature of things" in non-poetic language.  So there
remains the possibility that this poetic form was the only form through which
his knowledge could be presented.

Kivy thinks of Lucretius as a scientist, working at the cutting-edge of
knowledge, and then trying to present his discoveries to a skeptical, general
public.

But that seems to be an anachronism.

Regarding Kant -- in the Critque of Judgment - section 49 -  Kant introduced
the notion of an "aesthetic idea":

"by an aesthetic idea I mean a presentation of the imagination which prompts
much thought, but to which no  determinate thought whatsoever, i.e. no
[determinate] concept , can be adequate, so that no language can epress it
completely and allow us to  grasp it"

And  it is the power of aesthetic ideas that imparts to the fine arts what
Kant calls the "geist" (Spirit) -- which is beyond taste:      "Of certain
products that are expected to reveal themselves at least to be fine art, we
say that they have no "spirit" , even though we find  nothing to  censure them
as far as taste is concerned.  A poem may be quite nice and elegant, and yet
have no spirit."

"Hence the aesthetic idea is a presentation  that makes us add to a concept
the thoughts of much that is ineffable, but the feeling of which quickens our
cognitive powers and connects language, whch would otherwise be mere letters,
with spirit"

"Poetry expands the mind; for it sets  the imagination free, and offers us,
from among the unlimited variety of possible forms that harmonize with a given
concept, though winin the concept's limits, that form which kinks the
exhibition of the concept with wealth of thought to which no linguistic
expression is completely adequate, and so poetry rises aesthetically to ideas"
(as opposed to the pleasure of "free beauty" -- i.e. decoration - where ideas
do not occur)

Unfortunately for his subsequent credibility among those who study literature,
Kant chose only one poem to exemplify such poetry - a poem by Frederick the
Great, where:

"the King is here animating his rational idea of a cosmopolitan attitude, even
at the end of his life,  by means of an attribute whtich the imagination (in
remembering  all the pleasures of a completed beautiful summer day, which a
serene evening calls to mind) conjoins with that presentation, and which
arouses a multitude of sensations  and supplementary presentations for which
no expression can be found"

As Kivy understands him, Kant is therefore presenting two kinds of content,
one that we can state (the "beautiful summer day" etc) and that "for which no
expression can be found"

And on that basis, Kivy presents Kant as a step towards the conflation of form
with content, but without going as far as A.C. Bradley

Which makes sense -- although I don't think the difference between them is
very important.

For Kant, the content which is most relevant to "fine art" cannot be stated --
so as we try to identify it, all we can do is point towards the form.


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