On Thu, 2010-01-14 at 09:24 -0800, Kerim Aydin wrote:
> In a greater sense, here's my conceptual problem with ratification.
> We've said (I think in a court case?) that if a ratification occurs on
> a report describes a state that is IMPOSSIBLE in a continuous sense 
> (e.g. setting an asset to a negative quantity) then the reality 
> "reasserts" itself.  However, once a vote is cast and past the voting
> period, it is equally IMPOSSIBLE factually to change it (change the
> past) so why doesn't reality reassert itself in this case, too?
Although I don't believe in the reasserting-reality interpretation, just
using a logical argument I come to the same conclusion as you. The
problem is with "assume this incorrect thing were true"; subjunctive
arguments are nearly always difficult or impossible to establish the
truth of. (Remember that, from a contradiction, anything follows!)

> This brings it back to my original question.  What ratification is
> ask us to act as if the IMPOSSIBLE were true.  So if the rules were
> changed such that ratification of an IMPOSSIBLE state was the only way 
> to adopt proposals, it would still mean rules changes were 
> IMPOSSIBLE, but just that we accept that the impossible happened
> through self-ratification.   So would R1698 act to keep such said
> changes from happening?  This question may be wholly a semantic one,
> but it's a semantic interpretation that affects the operation of R1698.
Valid point, I'm pretty convinced that ratification is broken, now.
(Possibly by being too ambiguous to have an effect.) I still don't think
the general concept of ratification is too weak to provide a mechanism
around 1698; but the specific implementation we have at the moment may
be.

-- 
ais523

Reply via email to