> On Jan 17, 2019, at 3:31 PM, Kerim Aydin <ke...@uw.edu> wrote:
> That's worth thinking about, but first I was curious at other people's 
> thoughts between #1 and #2.

I prefer interpretation #2. The person being communicated to is the resolver; 
what is necessary is that e has knowledge sufficient to determine the number 
being communicated.

> If we find in favor of #2, there's a secondary question: whether we take 
> twg's word that e had set a definition for tau ahead of time, so that D. 
> Margaux's 'tau+1' communication uniquely defined a value when it was made. So 
> it's basically a "what standard of evidence do we accept?" case rather than a 
> "what constitutes communication".

It is not clear to me that twg said that e had determined a value for “rau” in 
advance of the communication. In eir initial message, e communicated that the 
value was “rau,” a word in eir own language, but I don’t think e said that 
“rau” had a fixed determinate value at that point. And later messages indicate 
that “rau” had a Humpty Dumpty/Alice in Wonderland quality to it, where it came 
to mean different things according to what twg was inclined at any given time. 
So that’s why I think rau and rau+1 actually didn’t communicate any value at 
the times they were communicated. 

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