I'm confused about a couple of things...

> Abstractly, the situation is as follows:
> 
>   * Just before time T, rule R had body B0 and revision number R0.
> 
>   * Document D alleges that, at time T, rule R had body B1 and revision
>     number R1.
> 
>   * At time T+Y, document D is ratified.

Was R0=R1 in this case? Shouldn't it be, unless document D was
doubly-wrong?

(I guess your judgement never claims they're *not* equal, but still I
wonder if I'm missing something since you went to the trouble to
separate them.)

> Past interpretation has been in line with possibility #2. But were we
> wrong all along about that?
> 
> Relevant clauses from Rule 1551:
> 
>       When a document or statement (hereafter "document") is ratified,
>       rules to the contrary notwithstanding, the gamestate is modified
>       to what it would be if, at the time the ratified document was
>       published, the gamestate had been minimally modified to make the
>       ratified document as true and accurate as possible; ...
> 
>                                        ... If no such modification is
>       possible, or multiple substantially distinct possible
>       modifications would be equally appropriate, the ratification
>       fails.
> 
> Within the evaluation of this hypothetical, the ratified document need
> not be /completely/ true, just "as true and accurate as possible". Past
> practice thus amounts to implicitly interpreting this as "as true and
> accurate as possible without violating the subsequent restrictions":
> 
>   * Within the evaluation of this hypothetical, at time T, rule R had
>     body B1, even if its revision number was still R0.
> 
>   * Thus, at time T+Y, rule R comes to have body B1, and revision
>     number (whatever it was just before time T+Y) + 1.

Where do you get ((whatever it was just before time T+Y) + 1) from? I
believe it's true, but it seems your reasoning is skipping a step, so I
wanted to check my understanding.

The "as true and as accurate as possible" condition is evaluated within
the hypothetical. Within the hypothetical, there's nothing special
about time T+Y. The magic happens at time T.

I suppose there would be cascading consequences: within the
hypothetical, the revision number is bumped by 1 at time T, and
therefore every subsequent revision number would also be increased by
1, just to keep them sequential. Is that what you're saying?

-- 
Falsifian

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