Why cant you use induction to prove this? On Thu, May 14, 2009 at 4:04 AM, console kid <[email protected] > wrote:
> > hi all ,I am talking about the big-Oh notation , > I had to prove that > [lg n] ^2 is better than the n . > > how can I do that . I have tried to show that n is a big-oh of ([lg n] > ^2) ,but > how can I do that ? > > -- thanks in advance -- > > > > -- =================================== want to know more about me http"//ww.livejournal.com/users/arunachalam --~--~---------~--~----~------------~-------~--~----~ You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Algorithm Geeks" group. To post to this group, send email to [email protected] To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [email protected] For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/algogeeks -~----------~----~----~----~------~----~------~--~---
