No, the inverse statement will be not true any more.
Intuitively, problem A is reducible to problem B if solutions to B
exist and give solutions to A whenever A has solutions. Thus, solving
A cannot be harder than solving B. When B belongs to P, A can't belong
to NP, because B is harder than A. But on the inverse direction, if A
belongs to P, B has no need to be a member of P problems. Actually, B
can be a NP problem as a NP problem is definitely harder than a P
problem according to the definition of computability.

On Fri, Aug 27, 2010 at 3:16 AM, Avik Mitra <[email protected]> wrote:
>        An instance of a problem for an algorithm A can be coded in
> binary string of 0 and 1. Let us assume that there exists a standard
> coding that is valid for this discussion. Then the set of instances
> that satisfies the algorithm i.e. meets the criteria will form a
> language. If A runs in polynomial-time then the language is said to in
> P and set of all such languages constitutes P.
> [Description is from "Introduction to Algorithm" by RivestThomas H.
> Cormen, Charles E. Leiserson,
> Ronald L. Rivest, Clifford Stein, 2nd Edition.]
>
>      Now it can be proved that if L1 and L2 are two languages such
> that L1 and can reduces to L2 in polynomial time, then if L2 is in P
> then L1 is also in P.[lemma 34.3 of the same book] Now can we prove or
> disprove the following?
>
> If L1 and L2 are two languages such that L1 can be reduced to L2 in
> polynomial time, then if L1 is in P then L2 is also in P.
>
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