@Sunny: The probability of a1 being the winner is not 1/3 because of ties. I.e., if a1 = a2 > a3, then a1 and a2 are tied and there is no winner. What we can say with no calculations is that P(a1 winning) = (1 - P(no winner)) / 3.
Dave On Jan 18, 10:52 pm, sunny agrawal <[email protected]> wrote: > isn't the answer will be 1/3, without any calculations :) > > > > > > On Thu, Jan 19, 2012 at 7:10 AM, Sundi <[email protected]> wrote: > > there are 52 cards.. there are 3 players a1,a2,a3 each player is given > > 2 cards each one of A=2...J=11,Q=12,K=13..a user wins if his sum of > > cards is greater then the other two players sum. > > > find the probability of a1 being the winner? > > > -- > > You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups > > "Algorithm Geeks" group. > > To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. > > To unsubscribe from this group, send email to > > [email protected]. > > For more options, visit this group at > >http://groups.google.com/group/algogeeks?hl=en. > > -- > Sunny Aggrawal > B.Tech. V year,CSI > Indian Institute Of Technology,Roorkee -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Algorithm Geeks" group. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [email protected]. For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/algogeeks?hl=en.
