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http://www.openoffice.org/issues/show_bug.cgi?id=100762





------- Additional comments from [email protected] Fri Nov 20 07:45:34 
+0000 2009 -------
Yes, we must differentiate between keyboard layout and keyboard localization.
(In Vista, when setting up the keyboard layout/language, the first level chosen
is the language, and then the layout!).

The problem is, that the behaviour is not described anywhere in the help-files.
It could be considered normal behaviour, as many word processors apparently do
this, but somebody has to tell the user what normal behaviour is.

And lastly, there is a subset of the users who does not have a desire for this
behaviour and a subset who does. Why should the subset be forced to work the
same way as the other subset, when a simple checkbox (from the users point of
view) can alter the behaviour to the desire?

Why is it not possible to add an option (application- or documentwise) to enable
and disable the binding between written language and the keyboards language?

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