How do you demonstrate that the person who claimed authority in opting the phone# in has that authority? Is there any actual legal precedent showing the party collecting the unverified opt-in is not liable when someone opts in a phone# without authority? Or am I volunteering to be the guinea pig
On Mon, 2006-06-26 at 12:28 -0700, trixter aka Bret McDanel wrote: > On Mon, 2006-06-26 at 14:46 -0400, Matthew Rubenstein wrote: > > No, I am not joking. And yes, I am talking about opt-in. > > > > The question is what process to use to demonstrate that people have > > opted in? Is it enough to just ask otherwise anonymous people to assert > > that they are person paying for the phone# they're specifying to be > > called? Does that relationship have to be verified? Who's liable if it > > conflicts with the Do Not Call registry? In short, what is a > > demonstrated process for letting people opt-in to specify automated > > calling to a phone#? > > > generally you need the proof that they did infact opt in. if its a > webpage store their IP as they do it along with whatever other info you > get, if its via a physical paper, store or microfiche that. Then if > there is a dispute you can prove they did, as the burden of proof is > actually on you. > > Typically only 3rd party verification is only required if you have had > problems in the past. > > -- (C) Matthew Rubenstein _______________________________________________ --Bandwidth and Colocation provided by Easynews.com -- asterisk-biz mailing list To UNSUBSCRIBE or update options visit: http://lists.digium.com/mailman/listinfo/asterisk-biz
