On 1/7/07, Paul <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

I was thinking more about unreasonable restrictions placed on the future
livelihood of the worker. Let's assume he does nothing unfair or
underhanded. He has proper respect and regard for IP rights. The
customer wants a non-compete clause that prevents him from doing any
development work for competitors of the customer.


if you enter into a contract without intent on upholding all clauses, then
that is considered by some to be underhanded.  If the customer wants a
non-compete clause, then its on you to not agree to that, and either get it
removed, amended or walk away from the deal.


Lawyers have told me that the courts will not enforce such non-compete
clauses if they do not see proper consideration(compensation). If you
want to prevent the contractor from doing anything in the car wash
industry for the next 5 years, you are expected to pay for that
privilege. More than one lawyer has told me this. The broadness of scope
and duration of a non-compete clause should line up with the
consideration offered. If you are putting the guy in a position where it
takes a year to transfer his skills to another market area then you
should be compensating him for the income reduction during that time.


*generally* that is true, if such a clause prevents you from a livelyhood
courts wont  enforce it, with some exceptions (you sell your business,
generally you cant compete in that industry for a period of time and that is
generally enforcable for example - generally if you agree to this you ask
for more for the company, but that is on the seller to demand that money).

I have seen clauses in contracts say that if you learn some skill as a
contractor you cant use that skill anywhere else.  While this was stated to
not include *everything* and instead only what was proprietary to that
company, it was worded in a overly generic way.  I talked to the company
about my concerns and they gladly clarified in writing what the intent was
and that it didnt cover making rpms for example (or some other trivially
generic thing).

I tend to believe these lawyers because the courts continue to go more
in the "big brother" direction. They will take the attitude that the
clause is overly oppressive and tantamount to slavery(If I quit what
will I do for the next 5 years?).


Well I wouldnt say its because the courts are going in a big brother
attitude, but, yes I do agree that *generally* it does count.

However, works for hire are normally the owner of the person paying unless
specifically agreed to otherwise.  This is why when you work at a company,
they own your work by default, they paid for it afterall.



My understanding is that the courts apply this policy to people, not
companies. You can contract with a corporation and impose all kinds of
one-sided non-compete restrictions. The owners, officers and employees
of that corporation could wind up ignoring those restrictions. You can
go after the corporation for breach of contract if it still exists and
has assets.


There are other things that can affect a contracts validity as well.  In
some countries indefinite contracts are not legally valid, there must be
some way to terminate the contract at some point.  Either by saying 'no
more' (with or without notice depending on the contract) or whatever.  This
can allow for a company to opt out in some cases, although generally a
non-compete is 'for X years after termination of this agreement'.  That way
if there is a breech for any reason the non-compete or whatever clause still
holds.  Microsoft for example is currently under a non-compete clause with
citrus or whomever and the most they can do is remote desktop, although that
is about to expire.  NT4 was delayed for a similar clause.



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