> Ok, this is where it gets interesting. Consider the case of a PBX > which has its own MOH source and is talking via Asterisk to another > PBX. > > If that PBX wants to put the call on hold while sending its own MOH, > you would probably argue that it should not send a re-INIVTE at all, > but should simply replace the outbound audio stream with its MOH and > discard the inbound audio stream.
I have to agree with Kevin on this one. I fail to understand how you have a PBX-A talking to Asterisk talking to PBX-B and the PBX-A placing the call on hold. Typically you should have a Client/Phone to PBX-A to Asterisk to PBX-B to Client/Phone/VoiceMail. If the Client signals Hold, the PBX should NOT be passing that Hold status on but transition audio stream from Client to MOH (assuming MOH is handled). Asterisk shouldn't notice a thing except more RTP packets (or less if it is my teenage daughter on the phone as the case may be). IMHO, PBX-A would be broken if it passed this along the Hold message to downstream and then started servicing the MOH itself on the RTP stream. That just doesn't make sense. Now if PBX-A were not a PBX and were a SIP Router, and the SIP Router was attempting this, I can see how it would Re-Invite, but it shouldn't pass the hold status onto Asterisk. Need some clarity here. Tony Plack _______________________________________________ -- Bandwidth and Colocation Provided by http://www.api-digital.com -- asterisk-users mailing list To UNSUBSCRIBE or update options visit: http://lists.digium.com/mailman/listinfo/asterisk-users
