I read through your question a couple of times.   Basically you have server A which has extension 2000 and 5550.   Server B has extension 2000 and 2001.   You configure a (soft)phone as extension 2001 and dial 5550 which succeeds but you dial 2000 and the call fails.

Have you tried turning up the debug verbosity in the console and watching the call flow on Server B?  I don't know what would prompt Server B to try passing the call to Server A but that should become apparent in the debug information.

If the 'domain' you are referring too his the FQDN then that has nothing to do with the price of bread as far as I can tell.  


Noone can give me a clue on this ?
How Domains are used within Asterisk ?

From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Adrian Marsh
Sent: 26 May 2009 12:14
To: Asterisk Users Mailing List - Non-Commercial Discussion
Subject: [asterisk-users] Domains
 
Hi,
 
I’m trying to understand an issue I’m seeing between two Asterisk servers. I think it has to do with Domain definitions.
 
Server A), has extension 5550 defined. Has a sip client 2000 defined, and has guest-invites enabled.
Server B), Dials to server A for any 5550 dialled.  Has sip client 2000 and 2001 defined.
 
If I register at server B as client 2001, and dial 5550 then the call works, and is placed through to server As logic successfully.
But if I call in as client 2000, then the call fails, server A shows no log at all of the call (even a sip set debug ip <ip> showed nothing – though tcpdump did show the inbound invite).
However if I remove the definition of client 2000 from server A, then the call succeeds.
 
So I think that for a defined account server A is wanting to challenge for a password, even though the inbound call is not a local account – hence my trying now to understand if and how Asterisk uses Domains.  If I define a serverA.company.com domain on server A, will it ignore the challenge for an INVITE coming from server B ??
 
Thanks
 
Adrian

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