If it did not dial a 1, it would not work because a 1 is required for the called number, as coded, to work properly with the local phone service.
Furthermore, I discovered this because I originally coded it this way:
exten => _NXXXXXX,1,Dial(Zap/1/${EXTEN}|55)
...which simply timed out on the line and failed. Experimentally, I determined that the telco was expecting 3 more digits, in spite of the fact that 7 digit dialing is normal for the line.
From: Asterisk Learner <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Subject: RE: [Asterisk-Users] Dial via X100P
It does not dial a 1. The '1' denotes the Zap channel number which in this case is probably your X100P. Zap channels are assigned to Zap ports depending on the order in which you do a modprobe on them.
-----Original Message----- From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Bill Michaelson Sent: Saturday, March 13, 2004 2:18 AM To: [EMAIL PROTECTED] Subject: [Asterisk-Users] Dial via X100P
Just connected my X100P to Verizon. I stumbled across a config that works, for the moment, with this Dial command:
;this works, because it prefixes a 1 on the dialing. But why does it?... exten => _NXXXXXX,1,Dial(Zap/1/609${EXTEN}|55)
The comment says it all. The card/SW seems to dial a 1 before it dials the 609${EXTEN}
Unless I'm misinterpreting what is happening?
This obviously limits my possibilities. Can somebody explain to me why it dials 1, or appears to?
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