cliveb;183882 Wrote: 
> 
> 2. The residual difference after subtraction may well be audible in the
> context that it is not swamped by the presence of the much larger music
> signal, but be inaudible when the music signal is included. In other
> words, this method could produce a positive where ABX gives a negative.
> For determining whether there is an audible difference *in the context
> of listening to music*, ABX remains the more accurate measure.

If we assume that differences are more audible in isolation than with
other sounds are present, this technique is sufficient (but not
necessary) to demonstrate that some particular difference is inaudible.
That ssumption might be flawed in special circumstances - see section
1.1 of the article you linked to - but it's  certainly correct for most
signals.  

So this could be a quite useful technique, as it's easier than ABX and
if it gives a positive result one could follow it up with a proper ABX.


-- 
opaqueice
------------------------------------------------------------------------
opaqueice's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=4234
View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=33127

_______________________________________________
audiophiles mailing list
[email protected]
http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles

Reply via email to