Pat Farrell;231243 Wrote: > > > > This is the basis of what opaqueice stated earlier. The ONLY > difference > > between a 20KHz square and a 20KHz sine is at 60KHz and up. Band > limit > > them and they're identical. > > That may be true, but I sure didn't read it that way. > > Even at 60kHz sampling, your square wave ain't gonna be square when you > recreate it. >
I said opaqueice Wrote: > > You're very confused about this. It's not a "common misunderstanding". > Just ask yourself what the difference is between a 20 kHz square wave > and a perfectly smooth 20 kHz sine wave. > > Answer - a 60 kHz sine wave (plus higher frequencies). So if you can > hear 60 kHz, you'll know the difference. which is true. Take the difference between a 20 kHz sqaure wave and a (normalized appropriately) 20 kHz sin wave and you get a series of higher frequency sin waves starting at 60kHz. That's a result of basic Fourier analysis (we don't even need to touch the 20th century for this), and (since we can't hear about around 20kHz) it explains why if you DID go to the trouble of producing a 20kHz square wave, it would sound exactly like a 20kHz sin wave. I'm not sure which part you don't agree with. -- opaqueice ------------------------------------------------------------------------ opaqueice's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=4234 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=38596 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list [email protected] http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
