jkeny wrote: 
> Yes, I don't mean this in a sarcastic way but it's obvious that you
> haven't done a blind test before - you don't realise what it entails as
> I've tried to point out in my advice. You are walking blindly into a
> test that will embarrass you & some people are very happy to let you do
> so.
> 
> I predict that you will be turned down by all at CMU as they realise it
> would be a waste of their time unless you bring some experience of blind
> testing to the table & can show that you already can differentiate

I'm confused. Isn't the purpose of a double blind test to determine if
there is, in fact, a difference and not, as the above would have it, to
determine if one can find/hear/see/feel/sense an -*existing*- (or least
prejudged) difference. I mean if everyone knows and admits that is a
difference, such as would be the case of music played back using a pair
of inexpensive small two way bookshelf speakers versus a pair of very
expensive, large three way floor standing speakers, then what is the
point of doing a (pointless) double blind test.

Add into all of this confusion the fact that as these DBTs have been
described over the course of the past 20 or so prior posts, these DBTs
would be used to determined if a given individual (jh901 in this case)
can hear a difference and leaves out entire part of DBTs about the
results being statistically significant and such. As in, so okay some
audiophile somewhere can correctly tell he difference 70% of the time
between an mp3, a 16bit/44.1kHz wav and a 24bit/192kHz wav file. Isn't
the real issue where or not a statistically significant amount of people
can correctly tell the difference a statistically significant percentage
of the time?

Again, I'm confused.



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