Heya,
Putting in a few cents, I ended up using the <wsdlFile> tags in
my .wsdd because the version of my WSDL produced by ?WSDL wasn't usable.
I had imported a schema instead of embedding it directly into the WSDL
and the generated version stripped out the schemaLocation attribute -
thus rendering an incomplete WSDL that no one could consume. When I
asked about it here, the indirect answer was to use <wsdlFile>. I
decided it was better to give the user the original WSDL than rely on a
generated copy since I couldn't rely on them to match. YMMV.
Anna
Anna Veirauchs .Software Engineer . SunGard . Wealth Management Services
. 2399 Gateway Oaks Drive, Suite 200, Sacramento, CA 95833
Tel 916-288-6431 . Toll Free 888-526-6300 . Fax 916-288-6500 .
http://www.sungard.com/products_and_services/swms/managed_account_soluti
ons/default.htm
<http://www.sungard.com/products_and_services/swms/managed_account_solut
ions/default.htm>
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-----Original Message-----
From: Patrick Quinn [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Tuesday, July 26, 2005 4:04 AM
To: [email protected]
Subject: WSDL versus ?WSDL
Hi
This question is a variation on what I have asked before, but as yet had
no response on. So I thought I'd rephrase it and make it more generic.
How closely should the WSDL seen via
http://<ipaddress>:8080/axis/services/<servicename>?wsdl approximate the
original WSDL?
I am seeing some noticeable differences between the two, and I need to
ascertain whether this is:
A) normal
B) caused by a malformed WSDL
C) the result of a malformed WSDD file
D) an AdminService deployment bug
I can provide an example if necessary.
For the moment, if anyone can tell me which is the likeliest scenario
then that at least is an avenue to pursue. I'm hoping it's A) or B) then
at least I can do something about it.
Thanks in advance
Patrick
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