Thanks for your instructive comments.

This circumstance begs the additional question.

If we discuss here how biblical hebrew evolved and became chanted in 900
a.d.; how come we do not discuss here how biblical hebrew evolved and became
written in 90 a.d.,; aka mishnaic hebrew?

regards,

fred burlingame

On Thu, Nov 4, 2010 at 5:04 PM, Kevin Riley <[email protected]>wrote:

> The lentition of the letters bgdkpt is usually placed much later.  Many
> think it came in after the Exile.  So the answer is no, no C12th BCE Hebrew
> speaker would have known of this.  But after it did become part of Hebrew,
> yes, ordinary speakers would notice.  Anyone who used the wrong variant
> would have sounded either 'wrong' or 'foreign', just like in languages today
> that have the same phenomenon.
>
> This brings us back to a point often made: the Hebrew we have in the
> Masoretic texts represents the way Hebrew was chanted in the second half of
> the 1st millennium CE.  As part of the tradition of Hebrew, it is part of
> the evidence of how Hebrew was spoken in the 1st or 2nd millennium BCE, but
> it is not, nor was it meant to be, a trascription of how Moses, David or
> Ezra pronounced Hebrew.
>
> Kevin Riley
>
>
> On 5/11/2010 1:27 AM, fred burlingame wrote:
>
>>  that make life fun ...
>>
>> and so, in numbers 31:23 we have three instances of the hebrew word באש
>> occurring, but we have pronunciation differing; "ya-vo ... va-esh;"
>> "ta-ah-vi-ru ... va-esh;" and "ya-vo ... ba-esh."
>>
>> Is there some rule or reason to "dagesh" for "ba-esh" only once of three
>> instances?
>>
>> Would the average 12th century b.c., shepherd or farmer practiced (or even
>> known about) such subtle differences in his every day communications?
>>
>> Thanks for your help.
>>
>> regards,
>>
>> fred burlingame
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