Hello all, Although I rarely comment on this list, I enjoy my subscription very much as the subject of Biblical Hebrew fascinates me. I have a quick question concerning the word Solomon in the Bible as found in Proverbs 1:1 [example]. Can anyone please explain to me why the name is nor pronounced like we say it today? There is no "n" sound in the text... only what sounds like an "oh" sound (in the pointed text) following the root word Shalom (which = peace). Hence I see the correct pronunciation as "Shalomah," or something close to that.
Is there any reason why the "Sh" sound became an "S" sound in our English Bibles? And why no we close the word Shalomah with an N if there is no N in the original text? I am sure there is an easy explanation... hence I thought I would ask here... Thanks in advance for helping my feeble, faltering brain... Sincerely, John Mark Butzu Metro Detroit _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
