I've compared several translations of Isaiah 9:2-7 and I noticed that the New
American Standard, unlike any other i read, renders YuLaD, Qal Perf. Pass., in
Isa 9:5 as "will be born." I don't see any reason to give this a future sense
grammatically. I suppose if it is clearly understood as someone future that
might be plausible but not because of the tense. Thanks.
Ken
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