As some of you are aware, Diethelm Michel's study of the verb in the Psalter 
was an attempt to describe the function of the verbal forms in prose as well by 
testing it in a genre, i.e. poetry, where frequent reference is made to all 
time stages (past, present, and future) as opposed to a genre like narrative 
where the use of the verbal forms might be obsured by the fact that they 
primarily reference events in one time stage (i.e. the past).  I want to show 
you two examples of how I think his theory does help explain the verb in 
narrative as well--at least narrative speech, but first a review of Michel on 
the qatal. I offer the following translation from the German:
 

-Explanation by means of the qatal (he actually calls it "perfect". I will use 
the more neutral terminology throughout)
 
As typical for the qatal we have found that it cites self-important facts which 
have no inherent connection to their setting. Frequently now the qatal is being 
used in a construction which adds an explanatory fact to something previously 
described. Therefore it explains. Usually the qatal in that case is tacked on 
by means of a ו, but also it can be used asyndetically. 
 
He further summarizes as follows:
 
The qatal recounts an action which is in no dependence, which is 
self-important. This is shown in three ways.
 
1.       If a qatal is isolated or stands at the beginning of a clause it 
states a fact.
2.       If a qatal syndetically or asyndetically connects to a yiqtol or 
participle it does not continue this, but presents an explanatory fact beside 
it.
3.       If many qatals stand beside each other asyndetically they do not 
indicate an action progression, but rather they list equally important facts.
 
It is number 2 which concerns us in this discussion. In Gen 43:9 Judah pledges 
himself as security for Benjamin with yiqtols then he switches to weqatals to 
explain exactly what he means by his pledge.  The weqatals do not add new 
information. They explain the preceding yiqtols--just like Michel's theory 
teaches.
 
The same thing happens again in 43:14.  Jacob expresses a desire that the man 
(Joseph) have mercy on the brothers with a yiqtol then he explains what having 
mercy would look like, i.e. "may he set your other brother and benjamin free."  
So the weqatal also expresses desire in a sense.  So the difference between the 
verbs here is not one of tense or mood. The qatal functions here to further 
clarify Jacob's preceding expression of desire.
 
What do you all think?
 
Joseph Justiss                                            
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