Then, this -HEN has to do, in your view, with the 3rd person plural feminine personal pronoun?
If so, what does this -HEN add to the basic meaning of (D? Pere Porta 2010/12/10 Isaac Fried <[email protected]> > You are right! I also think that ADEY is plural. Why? because it appears to > me that this tsere is a double xirik for a doubly truncated HIY) ( היא ), > thus: > עדי = עד-היא-היא > which, I think, is an old plural form, before the addition of M to make HEM > ( הם ). > In Eccl. 4:2-3 ADENAH is obviously AD-HENAH ( עד-הנה ). In verse 3 it is > ADEN = AD-HEN. > > Isaac Fried, Boston University > > On Dec 10, 2010, at 1:47 AM, Pere Porta wrote > > > In Nm 24:20 we have (DY, a variant of (D: in some way we could say that >> this is the plural construct of the basic (D (until, up to). >> But in Ecc 4:3 we find (DN, hitherto, still, which is usually taken for a >> variant of (D as well. >> >> Regarding the final N of this word, what would this N be? >> >> It does not seem to be in any relation with the -N suffix of the plural >> feminine (look for instance at 1Sa 20:3: MUTFN) >> >> >> -- >> Pere Porta >> >> > -- Pere Porta _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
