Hi, list. We have in Ex 18:1 noun XOT"N, father-in-law. We have in 1Sa 18:18 XFTFN, son-in-law or daughter's husband.
It seems clear that both nouns are related: their consonants are the same and appear in the same order.... I'm wondering whether there is a good reason for this: Pattern of XOT"N is that of Qal Participle while pattern of XFTFN is that of many Hebrew nouns (such as DFBFR, word (Gn 18:14) or ZFKFR, male in Gn 1:27). Would the reverse equally have been possible? Namely, that XOT"N would mean daughter's husband and XFTFN would mean father-in-law... Is there any reason for things having gone the way they have gone and not the reverse way? Pere Porta (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain) > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew > _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
