George Athas:

I would appreciate your opinion, and anyone else's opinion, on the relationship 
between )L and )YL.  They both seem to connote "mighty".  Does one derive from 
the other?  Or are they two different spellings of the same word?  Or are they 
two completely different words?  Different lexicons offer different opinions as 
to those questions.  Why are there so many cases, like the word for "rams" in 
the plural, where the root seemingly can be either )L or )YL?  Presumably )L-N 
and )L-WN are the same word, with the latter simply being plene spelling.  But 
what is the relationship, if any, between )L-N or )L-WN, and )YL-WN?

Jim Stinehart
Evanston, Illinois




-----Original Message-----
From: George Athas <[email protected]>
To: [email protected] <[email protected]>; B-Hebrew 
<[email protected]>
Sent: Thu, Apr 14, 2011 11:08 pm
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] "Oak Tree" in Biblical Hebrew


Jim, I don't see anything here that you're offering for discussion. You're just 
seudo-publishing a theory. Unless there's a specific issue for engaging, please 
on't treat B-Hebrew like your own journal space.

EORGE ATHAS
oore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
ww.moore.edu.au

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