Sidney wrote:

"The Jewish names of the Gods in the Septuagint, Judges 10.6: Theois (5
times; and 220 times in the entire Old Testament).  This is actually a
mistranslation into Greek, and should read "Theoi."

======

Oh dear! I know I'm risking shaming my mother again, Sidney, but I'm afraid 
you've outed yourself here. The word θεοῖς, to which you refer in Jdg 10.6, is 
simply the dative plural of θεός. To say that it is mistranslated and should 
read θεοί makes zero sense, and actually betrays a lack of understanding of how 
basic case works in Greek — one of the first things usually taught to students 
of Greek. But, I'll resist the temptation of giving you a Greek lecture on 
B-Hebrew.

As for the rest of your 'analysis' it also fails at a number of levels. 
Firstly, you need to distinguish between duals and plurals. Secondly, you work 
purely from the morphology of אלהים and make some faulty conclusions. Yes, 
morphologically the word is plural. No one would dispute that. However, if you 
look at how the word functions in basic syntax, you will see that despite the 
apparent plural ending, it is used with singular verbs. Now it could be that 
every time singular verbs are used with אלהים as subject that the verbs are 
wrong. It's possible, but highly unlikely. It is far more plausible an 
explanation of the frequency, semantics, and syntax that אלהים is treated as a 
singular noun. In other words, you need to take into account both morphology 
and function. If we were to use your morphology-along logic, we would have to 
conclude that all fathers (אבות) in the Bible were actually women, and all 
women (נשׁים) were actually men, which, when you put those two observations 
things together, means that everyone was a man.

As for your "Sid's Rule #7", it still makes no sense. You are still working on 
the faulty assumption that Hebrew verbs are all denominative such that there 
are no truly legitimate 'verbal' verbs in the language. And you claim that 
there are 'internal prepositions' within these so-called 'verbs'? I'm sorry, 
Sidney, I am going to shame my mother again and say that these assumptions are 
totally ridiculous. The ideas you are stating, when I can understand them, 
don't seem to reflect any real legitimate knowledge of the language. May I 
encourage you to do some legitimate, directed study into Hebrew with an 
openness to being taught something new. Perhaps then you might be able to have 
a meaningful discussion about the language. Until then, you will not find 
anyone really able to engage with you.


Yours shamefully yet again,

GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au


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