> You really consider the 34 Aramaic vs 29 Hebrew plus the hundreds in > Aramaic is a "force of evidence?"
Yes, absolutely. Because 34 and 29 are good evidence and not skewed. They illustrate the multilingual complexity of the time. Your "plus the hundreds in Aramaic" doesn't exist or is invalid. You need to be aware that there are people out there who count anything Semitic as "Aramaic", because they have already assumed that Aramaic was the only common language. Even people who know better sometimes do this. So this is a kind of 'head's up'. And while you are counting nice middle&upper class ossuaries, you might list all of the story-parable meshalim in Aramaic in rabbinic literature. It's not too hard to do. (Most everyone thinks that parables tended to be addressed to common people, too.) erroso, yisge shlamax, hve shalom -- Randall Buth, PhD www.biblicallanguagecenter.com Biblical Language Center Learn Easily - Progress Further - Remember for Life _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
