In an article I read here, http://news.yahoo.com/jerusalem-scholars-trace-bibles-evolution-092932128.html
the writer said, "In another example, this one from the Book of Deuteronomy, a passage referring to commandments given by God "to you" once read "to us," a significant change in meaning." What could possible be a significant change in Deut. by changing 'to us' to 'to you'? In all of the verses I've examined so far, it wouldn't seem to matter if Moses was including himself in the conversation or not, but maybe I'm missing the bigger picture... -- Thanks, Chris E. Echols AVI-SPL _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
