Thanks for your thoughts, Nir. Yes, I'm still thinking of 'impenetrable' as the basic meaning, but the impenetrability being related to sophistication and not-easy-to-grasp use of speech, rather than, say, another language. Most of our English versions, presumably on the lead of Isaiah 33.19, imply that the phrase refers to a foreign, and therefore unintelligible, language. However, the context in Isaiah is more specifically related to foreigners. I can see how this might also work for Ezekiel 3.5–6, but wonder whether the semantic range for עָמֵק allows for the sense of unintelligible in relation to 'highfalutin' speech.
Do you have a reference regarding the possible Talmudic or Aramaising influence for the suggestion of 'profound'? GEORGE ATHAS Dean of Research, Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au) Sydney, Australia
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