I see that he translates Ps. 68:15(14), TA$LEG BCALMON
בפרש שדי מלכים בה תשלג בצלמון
as: ‘(It) was snowing on Zalmon’. Does this makes sense? Is it
grammatically tenable?
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On Dec 6, 2012, at 1:08 PM, James Spinti wrote:
John Cook has posted his SBL paper on valency on his and Rob
Holmstedt's blog:
http://ancienthebrewgrammar.wordpress.com/2012/12/05/biblical-
hebrew-valency/
Enjoy! James
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