Prof. Yigal Levin:
 
1. You wrote: “Nowhere doesit say that Hilkiah and Josiah could not read the 
book that had been found. Onthe contrary, Hilkiah tells Shaphan that he had 
found a "book of theLaw". How could he have known what the book was if he could 
not read it?”
 
Here is what II Kings 22: 8says: “And Hilkiah the high priest said to Shaphan 
the secretary, ‘I have foundthe book of the law in the house of the LORD.’ And 
Hilkiah gave the book toShaphan, and he read it.”
 
The only type of trulyancient writing, using a writing method that was so old 
as to be indecipherableto the high priest of Jerusalem, that would likely be 
found in the Temple wouldbe an ancient part of the Torah, and hence could be 
referred to by Hilkiah asbeing “the book of the law”. If the high priest 
Hilkiah could read that holywork himself, why would he give it to the scribe 
Shaphan to read, when thescribe usually handled secular matters, whereas the 
priest handled religiousmatters? Hilkiah didn’t know precisely what “the book 
of the law was”, thoughhe rightly suspected it must be part of the Torah, given 
its ancient writingsystem and the fact that it had been found buried in the 
Temple, until Shaphanread it to him.
 
Please note that Shaphan,by sharp contrast, has no trouble whatsoever reading 
the book immediately. Tome, if the high priest had been able to read this 
sacred holy book himself, hewould not have willy nilly handed it over to the 
scribe. Rather, Hilkiah wouldhave first read the book himself, and then knowing 
its contents, Hilkiah wouldhave promptly handed the book over to King Josiah 
directly, with the scribeShaphan not playing any key role in the matter at all. 
 
2. You wrote: “Shaphan thereports back to the king, first about the repairs 
(which he had been put incharge of), and then mentions the book and reads from 
it before the king. Notbecause the king could not read, but because reading to 
the king was thescribe's job. So the story really does not say what you claim 
it does.”
 
Is that a plausible interpretationof these two verses of text? “Then Shaphan 
the secretary told the king,‘Hilkiah the priest has given me a book’. And 
Shaphan read it before the king.”II Kings 22: 10.. “And the king went up to the 
house of the LORD, and with himall the men of Judah and all the inhabitants of 
Jerusalem, and the priests andthe prophets, all the people, both small and 
great; and he read in theirhearing all the words of the book of the covenant 
which had been found in thehouse of the LORD.” II Kings 23: 2.
 
If King Josiah could readthe book himself, and knowing that it was so important 
that King Josiah soonread this sacred book to “all the men of Judah and all the 
inhabitants ofJerusalem”, why would the king first have his scribe, who 
normally was involvedwith secular matters such as repairing the Temple, read 
him the book?
 
To me, the implication isthat only Shaphan the scribe could read the book in 
its original format, due tothe writing system used in the book. Shaphan, who 
routinely corresponded withAssyria and Babylonia, could read that writing 
system without any hesitation.The language and vocabulary of the book were no 
problem, being well-known byKing Josiah and his high priest. But what Shaphan 
needed to do was (i) firstread the book to King Josiah, so that King Josiah 
(who could not read the bookin its original format) would know precisely what 
had been found in the Temple,and then (ii) promptly transform the ancient 
writing system used in theoriginal book into alphabetical Hebrew writing. That 
could be done very fastand quite mechanically, because it wasn’t translating 
from a foreign language.Rather, it was simply putting the book into a writing 
format that King Josiahand high priest Hilkiah could read.
 
3. You wrote: “In general,I find the idea of a book, Deuteronomy or otherwise, 
being "lost" inthe Temple since the days of Moses highly unlikely. Since the 
Temple itself wasonly built centuries after Moses, where would it have been in 
the meanwhile?”
 
I hear you. But having saidthat, can’t you see that this famous story would 
only have verisimilitude ifwhat I said in my first post is true? Jewish wisemen 
in the 7thcentury BCE must have thought, probably accurately, that at least 
parts of theTorah had originally been written using a writing system that would 
be veryeasy to decipher for a person like King Josiah’s scribe, who 
occasionallycorresponded with Assyria or Babylonia, but that would be 
impossible todecipher by literate people such as the high priest of Jerusalem 
and King Josiah,who were very well-versed in alphabetical Hebrew writing but 
who did notpersonally read the originals of correspondence sent from Assyria or 
Babylonia.
 
What’s super-exciting aboutthis famous story is that it is effectively telling 
us what ancient writingsystem had been used to record parts of the Torah, which 
would most likelyapply to the very oldest part of the Torah (not necessarily to 
Deuteronomy). Imyself think that there’s at least a grain of truth to this 
story, namely thata portion of the Torah was so old that it had originally been 
written downusing a writing system that was completely different from 
alphabetical Hebrew,even though the underlying language and vocabulary had not 
changed too muchover time.
 
In my next post I will setforth my own interpretation of what’s exciting about 
King Josiah’s discovery,and cite some scholarly authority that to an extent 
backs up my view.
 
Jim Stinehart
Evanston, Illinois
 
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