John's posts still aren't coming through...
________________________________
James Spinti
E-mail marketing, Book Sales Division
Eisenbrauns, Good books for more than 35 years
Specializing in Ancient Near Eastern and Biblical Studies
jspinti at eisenbrauns dot com
Web: http://www.eisenbrauns.com
Phone: 260-445-3118
Fax: 574-269-6788

Begin forwarded message:
> 
> 
> ******************
> Hi Karl,
> 
> No, I'm not talking about translation—though as George Steiner points out in 
> After Babel, all translation itself involves interpretation. I'm thinking in 
> the broadest possible terms, such as you trying to "interpret" what I 
> intended and my interpreting your response. ALL communication requires 
> interpretation, and that interpretation is somewhat ambiguous. I like Umberto 
> Eco's approach: there are many meanings a text could have (i.e., many ways we 
> could interpret it), but there are some meanings that would be ludicrous to 
> attribute to it. When I approach interpreting the text, therefore, I am 
> asking myself what the range of possible (permissible) meanings are. For the 
> Hebrew verb, not all meanings are equally likely in a given construction 
> (contra Andrason, who seems to presume they are all equally available!). The 
> process of narrowing down the options comes through the long, arduous, and 
> endless task of refining our understanding of the patterns (e.g., yiqtol 
> rarely expresses past habitual in direct speech—just to pick a random 
> example).
> 
> I understand you when you describe Rolf's approach, but I don't find his 
> approach well reasoned. Given that wayyiqtol appears 90% in past narrative, 
> we have to ask several questions: Why is this verb form preferred for past 
> narrative if not because it grammaticalizes past tense or perfective aspect 
> (these are the most frequently used verb forms in past narrative in the 
> world's languages)? If the context only determines the past tense meaning, 
> then is wayyiqtol semantically vaccuus? How precisely do we know we are in a 
> PAST narrative context apart from some tense indicator—which generally 
> appears with the verb (to paraphrase Aristotle: the verb is that part of 
> speech which, in addition to its lexical meaning, involves some element of 
> TIME). 
> 
> In other words, behind this approach is viciously circular reasoning that has 
> been trenchantly criticized by linguists: how do we know that a verb form 
> indicates a certain discourse type except that we can independently determine 
> both verb meaning and discourse type, in which case what is the point in 
> having the verb form signal the discourse type if we already know what type 
> it is?
> 
> So what happens if we follow the lead of the verb forms and assume that they 
> MEAN something apart from simply their context (i.e., that they contribute 
> something to the expressions in which they occur)? It leads us to question 
> the assumptions with which we approach the text. Your example of Proverbs 
> 31:10-31 is a great case in point. In 2005 I wrote an article on the sentence 
> literature of proverbs (i.e., excluding chap. 1-9 and the last few chapters) 
> and the verb forms used there (see here: 
> http://ancienthebrewgrammar.files.wordpress.com/2010/05/cook-2005-fox-fs_genericity.pdf).
>  One thing I learned from the vast study of generic (proverbial) sayings 
> among linguists was that there are no apparent limitations on verb tense in 
> such sayings. In English, however, we tend to assume proverbial expressions 
> are present tense, but what about Boys will be boys or Never did the course 
> of love run smooth? These are used proverbially but are not present tense. 
> Another thing I discovered was that past-tense anecdotes are a sort of 
> "narrative" proverb, as in Prov 21:22, which has a perfect and wayyiqtol 
> form. I translate it as follows: A wise man went up  (QTL) to a city of 
> strong men, and brought down (WAYY) its strong fortification. It is only our 
> English proverbial style that leads us to interpret or translate this as 
> present tense.
> 
> So, looking at Proverbs 31, where do the verb forms lead us? According to my 
> count, the passage (vv. 10-31) consists of 20 QTL forms, 9 WAYY forms, and 
> only 8 YQTL forms and 3 PTC forms. I won't bother translating the entire 
> passage to clarify my interpretation, but I see no compelling reason not to 
> interpret the description (vv. 11-31) as a past anecdotal description of the 
> woman: the QTl and WAYY forms express past temporality, while the YQTL and 
> PTC forms express past habitual (e.g., v. 14 'from afar she would bring her 
> food'; v. 18 'her lamp in the night would not be extinguished'). If we take 
> seriously that the verbs might contribute something to the context, we would 
> less often (it is always a temptation) assume we already know what the 
> passage is about—not simply in terms of content but grammar.
> 
> John
> http://ancienthebrewgrammar.wordpress.com/
> 
> 
> On Dec 12, 2012, at 4:48 PM, [email protected] wrote:
> 
>> ------------------------------
>> 
>> Message: 6
>> Date: Wed, 12 Dec 2012 12:34:06 -0800
>> From: K Randolph <[email protected]>
>> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Re. More on verbs
>> To: James Spinti <[email protected]>
>> Cc: [email protected]
>> Message-ID:
>>      <CAAEjU0sJDdb+7FdVNcqy27=TWt9H==-ftkjqdsptpap6ucu...@mail.gmail.com>
>> Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"
>> 
>> John:
>> 
>> Since I know you?ll read this directly, I?ll name you.
>> 
>> I may have misunderstood you, but I was responding in particular to your
>> response to a previous comment where you wrote, ?Third, and relatedly, when
>> I approach the text, therefore, I ask myself: What is the possible range of
>> specific meanings for this gram given the patterns of interaction we can
>> identify between the general meaning and the various contextual factors??
>> It?s not just this sentence, but close to half your comment gave me the
>> impression that I expressed. But as I said, I may have misunderstood you.
>> 
>> Now I have a question concerning your use of the word ?interpret?, do you
>> mean translating it from Hebrew to English, or repeating the idea in one?s
>> own words? I think in Hebrew when I read Tanakh, so there?s no translating.
>> But when asked to put into my own words what I?ve read, because the
>> question is usually in English and my response also, I?ll give my response
>> in English. Or do you have a different understanding of ?interpret??
>> 
>> As for people basing their actions on the text, all too often I see them
>> using the text as pretext, that they want to do certain actions then look
>> for a text to justify their pre-chosen actions. Often that text is taken
>> out of context, or even worse a poor translation taken out of context, and
>> cannot be reconciled to the original text in its context. In fact, there?s
>> a famous theologian who became famous selling millions of books based on
>> this practice. Is this to which you refer?
>> 
>> A side issue: I think you misinterpret Rolf (or maybe I do). While I don?t
>> have access to his dissertation, his comments on line give me the
>> understanding that he thinks the Wayyiqtol is not by form a marker for the
>> past tense. However, over 90% of the time found in Tanakh it has a past
>> reference due to its context, namely a context of narrative of past events.
>> Or another way of saying it, it doesn?t grammaticalize for past tense, but
>> over 90% of the time it?s found in past tense contexts. If we don?t count
>> the past tense historical narratives, then what percentage of verbs are
>> Wayyiqtols and what percentage of them are past referent from their
>> contexts? That?s a question I haven?t seen answered.
>> 
>> As for the Wayyiqtol having a past tense grammaticalization, I look at
>> Proverbs 31:10?31 where the feminine form of it is found in verse 13,
>> 15?17, 24?25, and masculine in 28 & 31. This passage is present tense,
>> imperfective aspect from its context. Therefore all the verbs have present
>> tense, imperfective aspect meaning. None of these have past reference. How
>> many other passages are like this?
>> 
>> But I strongly disagree with Rolf that the conjugations are markers for
>> aspect, and the definition that I?ve seen him use is the same as elsewhere.
>> 
>> Yours, Karl W. Randolph.
> 

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