Dear Rolf, Your dissertation sounds very interesting. Have you put it up 
online? Tak. Betty Chan
 > From: [email protected]
> To: [email protected]
> Date: Mon, 13 May 2013 09:41:24 +0200
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] tense and aspect
> 
> Dear Isaac, 
> 
> In a clause there are words, each word having its own semantic range, 
> gammatical forms with restricted or wider meanings, and the words have a 
> certain order. All these elements have a meaning potential, and communication 
> is to make visible a particular part of the meaning potential and make the 
> rest invisible for the reader or listener. The author uses different means in 
> order to communicate.
> 
> One restricting factor is tense, and most languages have tenses (but not 
> Burmese and Mandarin). The meaning potential of a verb is that the event can 
> occur in the past, in the present, and in the future. When a tense is used, 
> the time of the action relative to a vantage point (the deictic center) is 
> made visible, and the rest of the meaning potential is kept invisible. You 
> are correct when you say that a verb form coding for tense, has the 
> particular tense it codes for, even when it stands alone. This means that 
> tenses in normal contexts have uniform references; the form "walked" shows 
> that the action is past, and "will walk" that it is future. The verbs of 
> Classical Hebrew do not have a uniform time references, but YIQTOL, 
> WAYYIQTOL, WEYIQTOL, QATAL,  and WEQATAL  can refer to past, present, and 
> future. Thus, Hebrew does not have tenses, and the temporal position of an 
> event in relations to the deictic center must be made visible by other means 
> than the verb forms.
> 
> The two examples below  from Isaiah illustrate that Hebrew does not have 
> tenses.
> 
> Isaiah 11:8,9: "and the sucking child will play (WEQATAL) near the hole of 
> the cobra, and the weaned child will stretch out (QATAL) his hand over the 
> viper's nest. They will not do (YIQTOL) any harm or cause ruin (YIQTOL) in 
> all my holy mountain, because the earth will be filled (QATAL) with the 
> knowledge of YHWH, just as the waters cover (participle) the sea.
> 
> In these verses there are two YIQTOLs, two QATALs, and one WEQATAL with 
> future reference
> 
> Isaiah 9:6: "For a child will be born (QATAL) to us, and a son will be given 
> (QATAL) to us, and the government will be (WAYYIQTOL) on his shoulders. and 
> his name will be called (WAYYIQTOL) Wonderful Counselor...."
> 
> In this verse there are two QATALs and two WAYYIQTOLs with future reference. 
> (I see no reason to render the two QATALs with English perfect, as most Bible 
> translations do—the "prophetic perfect" is an ad hoc argument without any 
> foundation from the 19th century.
> 
> 
> There are also other sides of an event than temporal reference that an author 
> wants to make visible. For example, s/he wants to make visible that an action 
> is conative, ingressive, egressive, progressive, resultative, or gnomic. Or 
> s/he wants to make visible the end of an action, or not to make visible any 
> of the details of an action. The part of the event that is made visible is 
> reference time (RT). The imperfective and perfective aspects are used in 
> Hebrew in order to make particular details or no details visible for the 
> reader or the listener. Whereas the tense of a verb alone places the action 
> in the past, present, or future, the aspect will not alone signal particular 
> details of an action. But the words of a clause, their meaning, combination 
> and order together with the aspect, can make visible particular details of an 
> action and keep other details invisible. In addition to the linguistic 
> context, a knowledge of the world can also be necessary to ascertain the 
> particular detail of the action that the author wants to make visible.
> 
> For example, when some grammars state that YIQTOLs with past reference 
> indicate "durative past," the reader is mislead.
> Durativity is a semantic and not a pragmatic property. A verb that is marked 
> for durativity will never cease to be durative. The verb $IR (sing) will in 
> any context signal continuing action. To use a particular time frame (here, 
> the past) will not make a durative verb more durative. Moreover, the past 
> time frame together with the imperfective aspect can also signal a 
> semelfactive or instantaneous action, so we cannot at the outset know whether 
> a YIQTOL with past reference signals an action that continues.
> 
> The following example illustrates the use of the Hebrew imperfective aspect.
> 
> 1 Kings 6:1 "In the four hundred and eightieth year after the Israelites came 
> out of Egypt....he began to build (WAYYIQTOL) the temple of YHWH."
> 
> What is the reason for the ingressive interpretation of the WAYYIQTOL? There 
> are three factors, 1) the temporal adverbial, 2) the imperfective aspect of 
> the WAYYIQTOL, and 3) a knowledge of the world. The last point is important. 
> If the temple had been completed in one year, there would not have been an 
> ingressive interpretation. But because we know that the building took several 
> years, we ascertain that it is only the beginning of the action that is made 
> visible. Thus, reference time (RT) in this example includes the beginning and 
> a small part of the continuing action.
> 
> In order to study more Hebrew examples, I recomment my dissertation, which 
> analyses 2,106 passages from the Tanakh with 4,261 verbs.  You will also find 
> numerous examples in the archives in previous discussions of tense and 
> aspect. 
> 
> 
> Best regards,
> 
> 
> Rolf Furuli
> Stavern
> Norway
> 
> 
>  
> 
>  
> Søndag 12. Mai 2013 17:43 CEST skrev Isaac Fried <[email protected]>: 
>  
> > I am still saying that examples from the Hebrew would help greatly in  
> > clarifying the difference between tense and aspect.
> 
> > 
> > As I understand it, a verb is said to possess tense if it can be time  
> > framed even if standing alone, as a single word, say שברתי $ABAR- 
> > TIY = $ABAR-ATIY, 'I broke, or 'I have broken', as in Jer. 2:20. Am I  
> > right?
> 
> 
> 
> > 
> > Now, in the example above the "suffix" -TI is, in my opinion, the  
> > personal pronoun אתי ATIY, an obsolete variant of אני ANIY.  
> > Namely, this pronominal addendum is not a universal time marker per  > se, 
> > but is merely conventionally and specifically (ad hocly) used  
> > here as such. Hence, there need be no similar time reference in the  > same 
> > (same!) pronominal suffix -TIY of the form W-$ABAR-TIY, as in  > Lev. 
> > 26:19, which, indeed, clearly refers a future action. Am I right?
> > 
> > Isaac Fried, Boston University
> > 
> > On May 12, 2013, at 2:28 AM, Rolf wrote:
> > 
> > > Tense signals the position of the event in the past, present, and  > > 
> > > future, and aspect makes visible a part of the event and keeps the  
> > > rest invisible
> > 
>  
>  
> 
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