Why should you think they are depending upon one SINGLE translator?
Regards,
Scott
David Friedman <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
I know that the infallibility of the House is dependent on the information
received. There's something that ocurred to me recently that I had never
thought of before. People sometimes write to the House in languages none of
the House members can speak. These are translated for the House whose
English response is then translated for the recipient. House members are
required to give approval before their responses are sent. I'm assuming
that when it is a language none of them understand they just take the word
of the translator that they have translated it accurately. These letters
could contain a ruling from the House. If the House don't understand the
response isn't there a possibility that their response could get
mistranslated and the result be that the official response of the House (the
letter) has a ruling which wasn't what they intended? Isn't it possible
that an infallible House ruling comes out as something different? If so,
would that make the erroneous response to be considered binding?
Regards,
David
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