Yes it makes sense to have different price in cost_spec/price_annotation
when selling, where in buying/acquiring it should match right?

Is it reasonable to add a check here that for buying/acquiring the two
prices should match? Or even make the price_annotation invalid syntax for
buying/acquiring?

On Wed, May 25, 2016 at 10:16 PM, Martin Blais <[email protected]> wrote:

> That's on purpose.
> Think about it it makes a lot of sense...
> Check out the trading document for an example of a sale with a capital
> gain and you'll see why.
>
> Price only matters for currency conversions. For sales the cash proceeds
> contain the same information.
>
> Offline now otherwise I'd type it right here.
> On May 26, 2016 01:01, "yegle" <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> It seems like beancount allow cost_spec and price_annotation to be
>> different, e.g.
>>
>> 2016-01-01 *
>>     Assets:One 1 SOMETHING {100 USD, 2016-01-01} @200 USD
>>     Assets:Two -100 USD
>>
>> Also it's weird that the balance is checked using the price in cost_spec,
>> not the one in price_annotation.
>>
>> --
>> Yuchen Ying
>> http://about.me/yegle
>>
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Yuchen Ying
http://about.me/yegle

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