Keep in mind that the way your UK broker holds US commodities at cost in GBP is 
exactly how HMRC wants you to report your capital gains: 
https://www.gov.uk/hmrc-internal-manuals/capital-gains-manual/cg78310

I have an opposite problem. I mostly use a US broker, but still have to account 
for any gains using UK tax rules. 

> On 2 May 2021, at 11:37, Caesar Schinas <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> 
> Interesting. I'll have to have a play with that idea and see what I can come 
> up with that makes sense.
> 
> From my own accounting point of view the main requirements are:
> 1. My profit/loss must be in GBP, as that's the currency of the account and 
> the currency I pay tax in.
> 2. The commodity price should be denominated in its native currency (USD) so 
> that I can fetch prices and see my unrealized gains/losses (converted back to 
> GBP at current rates if I so desire) over time.
> 
> Regarding your point (a): My account is in GBP and I never see the USD as 
> they are converted by my broker as part of the purchase/sale transaction (at 
> the time of the purchase, their accounting reports didn't even contain the 
> USD price) – but obviously, it's a USD-denominated commodity and it doesn't 
> make sense to try and denominate it in GBP in my ledger.
> 
> Accounting for the sale as two transactions is a very interesting idea. I'm 
> struggling to mentally imagine how it would look (subject to my constraint 1 
> above), though maybe it will become clear if I play around with it a bit. 
> Maybe I use an equity account for the temporary (imaginary?) USD holding? 
> Where does the FX loss (or profit) get accounted for? At some point it needs 
> to be offset against my P/L from selling the shares so I end up with the 
> correct overall profit/loss in GBP.
> Do you think you could share an example of how you envisage booking this as 
> two separate transactions?
> 
> Thanks!
> 
> 
>> On 2 May 2021, at 02:15, [email protected] <[email protected]> wrote:
>> 
>> Setting aside beancount for a second,
>> a) what cost currency was the commodity held in? I.e., what currency was it 
>> purchased and sold against?
>> b) it seems like a good way to think about this sale is two transactions: a 
>> sale of S_SQ, and a subsequent currency conversion. Do you think that's a 
>> good model? If so, I'd recommend starting by splitting it into those two 
>> transactions in your ledger, which should lead to clarity.
>> 
>>> On Saturday, May 1, 2021 at 1:59:37 PM UTC-7 [email protected] wrote:
>>> I think I now understand what's going on here.
>>> 
>>> It's actually simple: because the commodity is priced in USD, Beancount is 
>>> naturally calculating my profit in USD.
>>> The result is 1338.43 USD – which, at the current exchange rate on the sale 
>>> date, is 1015.35 GBP.
>>> 
>>> But because I actually made the transactions in GBP, and the exchange rate 
>>> has changed in the meantime, my actual profit is different (977.88 GBP).
>>> 
>>> I'm not sure what the cleanest way is to resolve this. At present I can 
>>> think of two options:
>>> 
>>> 1. Use a 'false' FX rate for the profit/loss leg of the transaction, such 
>>> as by using Beancount's @@ syntax.
>>> Example:
>>>   Income:Investments:PnL                      -977.88 GBP @@ 1338.43 USD
>>> At first glance this seems quite elegant, but one disadvantage is that it 
>>> will result in incorrect entries in the prices database for GBP/USD.
>>> 
>>> 2. Add another leg for FX gains/losses (I'm not sure if Expenses is the 
>>> right category)
>>> Example:
>>>   Income:Investments:PnL                      -977.88 GBP @ 1.31820 USD
>>>   Expenses:Financial:FXGainLoss                -37.46 GBP @ 1.31820 USD
>>> The problem with this is that it looks like I made a profit on the FX 
>>> difference, when I actually made a loss. I'm not sure how to resolve that.
>>> 
>>> Does anyone have any better ideas?
>>> 
>>> 
>>>> On Sat, 1 May 2021 at 20:54, Caesar Schinas <[email protected]> 
>>>> wrote:
>>>> Apologies, I made a minor error in my last message – my arithmetic doesn't 
>>>> add up because I omitted to account for the FX fee of 6.60 GBP.
>>>> The point remains: the much larger 'error' of 49.38 GBP is unaccounted for.
>>>> 
>>>>>> On Saturday, 1 May 2021 at 20:46:45 UTC+1 Caesar Schinas wrote:
>>>>>> But that's the thing: my income wasn't 1015.34 GBP, it was 977.88 GBP.
>>>>>> That is the difference between the amount of 482.60 GBP that was debited 
>>>>>> from my account when I bought the shares, and the amount of 1467.08 GBP 
>>>>>> that was credited to my account when I sold the shares.
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> So something else is amiss. But I can't work out what. (Unless it's 
>>>>>> totally incorrect exchange rates from my broker. But their web interface 
>>>>>> shows the same figures as the CSV from which I extracted the above data, 
>>>>>> and I'm loath to 'massage' the rates just to make the numbers fit, 
>>>>>> without actually understanding what's wrong.)
>>>>>> 
>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> On Saturday, 1 May 2021 at 20:18:53 UTC+1 [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>> Sale 11 175.81  1,933.91 
>>>>>>> Cost 11  54.135   595.49 
>>>>>>>                 1,338.43 
>>>>>>>    
>>>>>>> Proceeds 1467.08  1.3182   1,933.90 
>>>>>>> PnL    (1,015.34) 1.3182  (1,338.43)
>>>>>>>                              595.48 
>>>>>>>    
>>>>>>> So you should have -1015.34 GBP as your Income, not -977.88   
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>> Of course, you would need an additional posting to absorb rounding 
>>>>>>> errors.
>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> On Wednesday, April 28, 2021 at 5:14:40 PM UTC-7 
>>>>>>>> [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>> I've been using beancount for a while for my everyday transactions, 
>>>>>>>> but am only recently getting around to trying to import my trading 
>>>>>>>> activity to my ledger as it seems much more complex.
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> I'm having trouble with accounting for profit/loss on shares which are 
>>>>>>>> priced in a currency different to the main currency of my trading 
>>>>>>>> account.
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> My trading account is in GBP, but I often buy shares priced in USD. My 
>>>>>>>> broker handles the conversion, and charges me an FX fee as a 
>>>>>>>> percentage of the value of the trade.
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> Here is an example:
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> 2020-03-31 * "Buy 11 shares of Square"
>>>>>>>>   Assets:GB:Freetrade:GIA:Cash   -482.60 GBP @ 1.23390 USD
>>>>>>>>   Assets:GB:Freetrade:GIA:SQ          11 S_SQ {54.13456 USD}
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> ; ...
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> 2020-11-16 * "Sell 11 shares of Square"
>>>>>>>>   Assets:GB:Freetrade:GIA:Cash   1467.08 GBP @ 1.31820 USD
>>>>>>>>   Assets:GB:Freetrade:GIA:SQ         -11 S_SQ {54.13456 USD} @ 
>>>>>>>> 175.81000 USD
>>>>>>>>   Assets:GB:Freetrade:GIA:Cash     -6.60 GBP
>>>>>>>>   Expenses:Financial:Fees           6.60 GBP
>>>>>>>>   Income:Investments:PnL         -977.88 GBP @ 1.31820 USD
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> All the figures are from my broker's reports, except for the profit 
>>>>>>>> calculation.
>>>>>>>> For the profit I have simply subtracted the GBP purchase price from 
>>>>>>>> the GBP sale price, as this is the actual amount of profit I made (the 
>>>>>>>> actual net change in my account balance).
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> However, the second transaction does not balance:
>>>>>>>> Transaction does not balance: (49.3832800 USD)
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> I am struggling to understand where the extra 49.3832800 USD  came 
>>>>>>>> from (or went?), or how I can balance this transaction.
>>>>>>>> 
>>>>>>>> I'm quite new to this. Can anyone give me any tips?
>>>>> 
>>>>> 
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>> 
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