When I look at “Realized Gain/Loss Summary for 2022” from my brokerage I can 
see:
- Short Term Gain/Loss +141.90 (this makes since, it’s the disallowed loss)
- When I eventually sell the 4.812 shares in the future there’s a -113.12 Long 
term loss

This makes sense to me because the disallowed loss is accounted for. My current 
Gain/Loss for 2022 still shows that the 141.90 was disallowed.

However, with our beancount examples my Income:US:Fidelity:PnL does not account 
for the 141.90 change after 11/15.
- Income:US:Fidelity:PnL:Wash is 0 after 11/15
- Income:US:Fidelity:PnL was reduced by 141.90 on 6/16 but was increased by 
141.90 on 11/15

Basically my only confusion is that even though I’ve sold the adjusted cost 
basis lot, I’m still under the impression that 141.90 should be a disallowed 
loss that should be represented somewhere. In our beancount examples, the 
values of the PnL accounts after 11/15 are at exactly the same values they 
would be at if we never adjusted the cost basis of the 4.812 shares.

Colton

> On Nov 26, 2022, at 7:17 AM, Robert Sesek <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> Once you acquire new shares, then the wash sale amount gets added to the cost 
> basis of the replacement shares. The Wash account should balance to zero in 
> that situation, because the disallowed loss amount is consumed by the new 
> shares' cost basis. There is no separate wash sale amount you report on your 
> taxes: on Form 8949 you report that a loss was disallowed because of a wash 
> sale. The disallowed loss gets applied to a future tax lot's cost basis, and 
> that is only reported when you ultimately sell those shares with the adjusted 
> cost basis.
> 
> I would rewrite the last two transactions of your example differently:
> 
> 2022-06-16 * "FXAIX" "Wash sale disallowed loss from 2022-07-01"
>   ; New back-dated transaction to disallow the loss, since the PnL cannot be 
> captured for tax purposes
>   Income:US:Fidelity:PnL             -141.90 USD
>   Income:US:Fidelity:PnL:Wash         141.90 USD
> 
> 2022-07-01 * "FXAIX" "Wash sale cost basis adjustment"
>   Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX  -4.812 FXAIX {162.23 USD}
>   Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX   4.812 FXAIX {191.719 USD}
>   Income:US:Fidelity:PnL:Wash                  -141.90 USD
> 
> 2022-11-15 * "FXAIX" "Sell"
>   Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX  -4.812 FXAIX {191.719 USD} @ 
> 138.72 USD
>   Assets:US:Fidelity:IndexFunds:Cash          667.52 USD
>   Income:US:Fidelity:PnL                      255.03 USD
> 
> You are right that the date needs to be propagated, but if you make the 
> adjustment on the same day as the acquisition of the replacement shares, then 
> the implicit date works fine. However, you technically need to adjust the 
> cost basis date as well, to reflect the holding period adjustment that also 
> happens during a wash sale. 
> 
> - Robert
> 
> On Saturday, November 26, 2022 at 2:35:35 AM UTC-5 [email protected] wrote:
>> I think I’m missing something fundamental — a slightly simplified example of 
>> what I’m doing is provided below.
>> 
>> I can get the final transaction to balance but at that point 
>> Income:US:Fidelity:PnL:Wash is back to zero. I know my brokerage is still 
>> tracking the wash sale though and wouldn’t I want to be tracking a non-zero 
>> value for taxes?
>> 
>> Colton
>> 
>> 2021-09-07 * "FXAIX Purchase"
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX 31.803 FXAIX {157.22 USD}
>>     Assets:Investments:Cash
>> 
>> 2021-12-10 * "FXAIX dividend reinvestment"
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX 4.065 FXAIX {163.33 USD}
>>     Assets:Investments:Cash
>> 
>> 2022-04-08 * "FXAIX dividend reinvestment"
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX 3.388 FXAIX {155.83 USD}
>>     Assets:Investments:Cash
>> 
>> 2022-06-16 * "FXAIX Sell"
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX  -31.803 FXAIX {157.22 USD} 
>> @ 127.73 USD
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX  -4.065  FXAIX {163.33 USD}
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX  -3.388  FXAIX {155.83 USD}
>>     Assets:US:Fidelity:IndexFunds:Cash            5,014.17 USD
>>     Income:US:Fidelity:PnL                        1177.79  USD ; because of 
>> the next transaction this should be reduced by 141.90
>> 
>> 2022-07-01 * "FXAIX dividend reinvestment" ; this caused the wash sale
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX 4.812 FXAIX {162.23 USD}
>>     Assets:Investments:Cash
>> 
>> 2022-07-01 * "Re-adjust cost basis due to Wash Sale"
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX  -4.812 FXAIX {162.23 USD}
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX   4.812 FXAIX {191.719 USD} 
>> ; also suppose to propagate the date?
>>     Income:US:Fidelity:PnL:Wash                  -141.90 USD ; accounting 
>> for wash sale
>> 
>> 2022-11-15 * "FXAIX Sell"
>>     Assets:Investments:Taxable:IndexFunds:FXAIX  -4.812 FXAIX {191.719 USD}  
>> @ 138.72 USD
>>     Assets:US:Fidelity:IndexFunds:Cash          667.52 USD ; should match 
>> cash deposited from transaction
>>     Income:US:Fidelity:PnL                      113.13 USD ; loss from the 
>> transaction
>>     Income:US:Fidelity:PnL:Wash                 141.90 USD ; required to 
>> balance but results in zero'ing out PnL:Wash
>> 
>> 
>>> On Nov 24, 2022, at 7:43 PM, Robert Sesek <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>> 
>> 
>>> I book wash sales similar to that example. Though I do adjust the 
>>> disallowed loss into a Wash account, rather than directly into PnL.
>>> 
>>> What cost basis lot are you using to reduce the inventory when you sell the 
>>> shares? You need to use the adjusted cost basis for those shares. Here is a 
>>> hypothetical sale based on the example in irs-simple-example-1.beancount:
>>> 
>>> 2014-01-01 * "Sell adjusted lots"
>>>   Assets:Investments:STOCK         -100 STOCK {10.5 USD} @ 11.00 USD ; 
>>> Adjusted cost basis shares
>>>   Assets:Investments:Cash      1,100.00 USD
>>>   Income:Investments:PnL         -50.00 USD ; PnL from the adjusted cost 
>>> basis
>>> 
>>> Conceptually, the transactions are:
>>> - Buy stock
>>> - Sell stock at a loss
>>> - Dividend reinvestment
>>> - Cost basis adjustment of the reinvested dividend shares by the loss amount
>>> - Sell reinvested shares, reducing the position by the lot with adjusted 
>>> cost basis
>>> 
>>> If you are still having trouble, it would be helpful for you to post the 
>>> transactions you are having an issue with. 
>>> 
>>> - Robert
>>> 
>>> On Thursday, November 24, 2022 at 4:55:46 PM UTC-5 [email protected] <> 
>>> wrote:
>>>> I've been struggling with the *right way* to account for wash sales. I've 
>>>> been reading these:
>>>> - https://github.com/beancount/beanlabs/tree/master/beanlabs/washsales
>>>> - 
>>>> https://beancount.github.io/docs/how_inventories_work.html#augmentations-vs-reductions
>>>> 
>>>> My situation is pretty simple:
>>>> - bought some stock
>>>> - a bit later sold some lots at a loss
>>>> - automatic dividend reinvestment got me (oops) and this is what triggered 
>>>> the wash sale
>>>> - few months later I sell the lot that triggered the wash sales
>>>> 
>>>> I can adjust the cost basis of the lot that triggered the wash sale but 
>>>> the problem is that the new cost basis throws off my later transaction 
>>>> when I sell the wash sale lots.
>>>> 
>>>> My case is exactly like this one:
>>>> https://github.com/beancount/beanlabs/blob/master/beanlabs/washsales/irs-simple-example-1.beancount
>>>> 
>>>> Except that after the last transaction there is one more transaction where 
>>>> I sold the lot with the adjusted cost basis and I can't get this to 
>>>> balance (even if I use an account like "Income:Investments:PnL:Wash"
>>>> 
>>>> Any tips appreciated!
>>>> 
>>>> Colton
>>> 
>>> 
>> 
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