> On Aug 10, 2023, at 4:13 PM, Eric Altendorf <ericaltend...@gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> 
> 
> On Thu, Aug 10, 2023 at 3:12 PM Bakul Shah <ba...@iitbombay.org 
> <mailto:ba...@iitbombay.org>> wrote:
>> [new user here]
>> 
>> Consider this example snippet:
>> 
>> 2023-06-18 * "Buy shares of XYZ"
>>   Assets:US:ETrade:Cash                           -110.00 USD
>>   Assets:US:ETrade:XYZ                                10 XYZ {10.00 USD}
>>   Expenses:Financial:Commissions               10.00 USD
>> 
>> 2023-07-21 * "Sell shares of XYZ"
>>   Assets:US:ETrade:XYZ                             -10 XYZ {10.00 USD} @ 
>> 12.00 USD
>>   Assets:US:ETrade:Cash                            110.00 USD
>>   Expenses:Financial:Commissions               10.00 USD
>>   Income:US:ETrade:Gains                           -20.00 USD //anything 
>> else yields an error with bean-check
>> 
>> As I understand it, actual capital gains in this case would be 0 when you 
>> consider the two commissions.
> 
> At least in the US, yes.  FWIW, what your ledger currently reflects is that 
> you made 20 USD in capital gains profits but paid 20 USD in commissions, 
> which is a legitimate way of looking at things, just not as convenient for 
> reporting "capital gains" for tax purposes.
>  
>> But if 20 shares were bought originally with a $10 commission, Cap gains 
>> income would be -5 dollars (since half of the original shares were sold).
>> 
>> Is there a way to reflect the actual capital gains?

Thanks for your response. Through a connection I asked a couple of experienced 
CPAs the same question and they suggested this:



Not quite what I was hoping for!

> 
> This is apparently not yet figured out.
> 
> See the documentation:
> https://beancount.github.io/docs/trading_with_beancount.html#commissions

There is a link to a proposal for this but seems broken....

> 
> Also see my related question from yesterday:
> https://groups.google.com/g/beancount/c/WnSDRjmp7k8/m/Srr_jhZpAgAJ

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