> It's my understanding that the difference between > > &some_func; > > and > > some_func(); > > is that the '&' invocation passes the original contents of @_ into > some_func, whereas the '()' invocation has an empty @_ in some_func. In the > first instance, some_func has access to the arguments of the calling > function.
Good to know. What happens in the case where I do something as follows (which I do often and so far successfully).. &some_func("$var1","$var2","$var3"); ? =================== Shaun Fryer =================== London Webmasters http://LWEB.NET PH: 519-858-9660 FX: 519-858-9024 =================== -- To unsubscribe, e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED] For additional commands, e-mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]