Hi all,
whats the current state with the "supposedly" leaked aryanpour dictionary? Does anyone have any info on this issue? Some people from other lists have been debating this issue for some time now.
I plan to write a small app which will reverse the index to make a persian to english mapping possible, would this new index be seen as a derivative of the dictionary if it is found that the original source is Aryanpour?
on more of a technical side, I'm still not 100% sure if my methodology is correct, in any case I plan to reverse the index using the following fact:
if there is a mapping from english to persian like so:
abc :: xyz, ijk
then the reverse mapping from persian to english would be so:
xyz :: abc ijk :: abc
a more extended example would be:
abc :: xyz, ijk def :: qrs, ijk
then the reverse mapping would be:
xyz:: abc ijk:: abc, def qrs:: def
Is this logic correct from a linguistic point of view? if not, could someone give me some examples of where it falls over etc...
Any help would be very much appreciated.
Arash Partow
__________________________________________________ Be one who knows what they don't know, Instead of being one who knows not what they don't know, Thinking they know everything about all things. http://www.partow.net
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