>Whether or not you have any faith in the ability of the military/CIA
to
>carry out such a policy, would you consider an official change in 
>policy to
>allow overt direct action against a person giving the order for the
>use 
>of a
>weapon of terror against your country, if you were in a position to 
>give
>such an order?
>
>YES/NO <delete as appropriate>
>
>Back up your answer if you wish, but it's a simple yes or no.


NO.  What is the use of having such a stated policy?  The supposed
purpose would be to frighten any dictator who planned on using Weapons
of Mass Destruction against the US.  But come on, such a dictator with
such a plan isn't going to be frightened by the mere stating of such a
policy.  

He (This type is all "he"s) will expect such an action whethere it is
the stated policy or not.  Either he doesn't mind dying, or he figures
the US couldn't do it if it wanted to, or he figures the US wouldn't
really do it.  Stating the policy isn't going to change a thing. 

And commiting to the policy means loud objections from the peace
people...enough that perhaps we'd have to change the policy to the
opposite.  We are better off with an ambiguous policy.  Every dictator
knows that we might assassinate him if he attacks the US directly, he
doesn't need to refer to Senate Resolution #0490125/b12.



=====



Darryl

Think Galactically --  Act Terrestrially


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