"John D. Giorgis" wrote:
> If the writers of the 1st Amendment intended it to apply to the States, why
> did they specifically single out "Congress shall pass no law......" They
> could have easily said "No government shall......" Indeed, I think it is
> impossible to view the Constitution in any other context than that of the
> States placing limits upon the powers of the Federal Govt., relative to the
> States.
>
By you're analysis then, there would be nothing wrong with states passing
campaign finance laws that restrict spending?
Doug
