----- Original Message -----
From: "Baardwijk, J. van DTO/SLBD/BGM/SVM/SGM" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Monday, September 24, 2001 9:27 AM
Subject: RE: Repeated question on Israel
> > -----Oorspronkelijk bericht-----
> > Van: Dan Minette [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> > Verzonden: Monday, September 24, 2001 4:25 PM
> > Aan: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > Onderwerp: Repeated question on Israel
>
> > Jeroen, I've got a question I asked a while ago that is relavant to
> > this discussion. Does Israel have a right to exist, or is the only
> > moral action for Israel to agree to cease to exist as a nation?
>
> It has as much right as any other nation to exist -- no more, no less.
That
> right does not however include the right to behave as if Israel and its
> population are superior to other nations and other people.
>
> Note that Israel has always held that *they* had a right to have a country
> of their own in the Middle East, and thought it wonderful that other
> countries had to give up land for that, but also always denied that very
> same right to the Palestinians.
>
>
The only thing they didn't grant the Palestinians in the last negociations
is the right to have Israel as the Palestinian state. The only sticking
point in the last peace deal was the "right of return" of Palestinians to
Israel. Israel compromised on every other point so that there was little
left in dispute but quibbles. If they granted Palestianians the right to
move to Israel and become citizens of Israel at will, it would become a
Palestinian state, because the are more Arabs than Jews. It would cease to
exist as Israel.
So, why is Israel at fault for the failure of the last peace treaty?
Dan M.
Dan M.
