>> This is a myth. He was elected by the parliament, which is not >> democratic. It's like Bush II in 2000, who was elected by the >> electoral college, and not by the people. > > Ah, so you are saying it was only about 49.9% of the popular > preference, instead of 50.1%? Sounds like a robust system.
The Nazis received about 38% of the seats in 1932 and were the biggest party in parliament. Mostly thank to the consequences of the ongoing depression (which was particularly onerous to Germany it is often argued because of the crushing terms of reparations in the treaty of Versailles). Because of the fractured nature of German governance at the time Hitler was able to use his leverage to get Hindenburg to appoint him Chancellor. As far as it goes Hitler getting power in 1934 was a legitimate process in the Weimar republic and a blunder by Hindenburg. It's the next election that matters. Having gained power the Nazis used it to remove competition and ensure no further fair elections. That combination of economic depression and exploitable militarism is something to worry about, really quite topical. As an interesting aside: Algeria had an election some time ago where popular votes won it for an Islamic party. The existing military dictatorship fearing a theocracy that would ban further elections (and possibly pursue them for past crimes) attempted to void the election and instigated a very vicious civil conflict. Although a problematic example it does give on pause to wonder about the situation where a democratic election may place people to whom democracy is disposable in power. I guess it's a string argument for rigid Constitutional rule. _______________________________________________ http://www.mccmedia.com/mailman/listinfo/brin-l
