--- Sumit Chawla <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> On 2/14/07, Paul Herring <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> wrote:
> > On 2/14/07, Gopi Krishna Komanduri
> <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > > Hi Paul,
> > > Thankls for your response. But my query
> is
> > > not related to using base class member function.
> I
> > > think I didn't keep proper question. My question
> is
> > > related to operator overloading. When we over
> load an
> > > operator in base class , can that function be
> used
> > > with derived class object as we norammly we base
> class
> > > functions with derived class objects <=> we
> inherited
> > > with public access specifier. Hope I kept the
> question
> > > in proper way.
> >
> > You want to use the base class's function in the
> derived class's
> > function which overrides the base function?
> >
> > If so, yes. That's what I did in the
> derived::show() function - I
> > called base::show()
> >
> > What you cannot do is expect the base class to
> work with an object
> > derived from base.
> >
> > --
> > PJH
> > Aio, quantitas magna frumentorum est
> >
> >
> >
>
> i think his doubt his whether he can perform the
> following operations or
> not?
>
> Derived obj1(2,2) , obj2(3,3);
>
> obj1 += obj2;
>
> correct me if i am wrongs
>
>
> --
> Regards
> Sumit Chawla ("eNetra : Hail the Invention")
>
If operator+= is defined for the base class, and not
overloaded in the derived class, the above code would
call the base class operator+=.
Ray
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